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Q1. When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options? 

A. Will the switches be required to provide inline power? 

B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise? 

C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response? 

D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN? 

Answer:


Q2. In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion detection services? 

A. monitor mode 

B. promiscuous mode 

C. discovery mode 

D. sniffer mode 

Answer:


Q3. Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network? 

A. Overlay Transport Virtualization 

B. Virtual Private LAN Services 

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation 

D. QinQ tunneling 

Answer:


Q4. You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface? 

A. RMON 

B. SNMPv3 

C. NetFlow 

D. Cisco Discovery Protocol 

Answer:


Q5. Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the Enterprise edge? 

A. Cisco IOS router 

B. Cisco ASA 

C. Cisco Catalyst FWSM 

D. Cisco IPS 

Answer:


Q6. Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Service Provider Module? (Choose three.) 

A. ring 

B. star 

C. full mesh 

D. core/edge 

E. collapsed core 

F. partial mesh 

Answer: B,C,F 


Q7. Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile? A. Cisco 1900 Series 

B. Cisco 1800 Series 

C. Cisco 800 Series 

D. Cisco 500 Series 

Answer:


Q8. What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast domain? 

A. router 

B. switch 

C. IDS 

D. IPS 

Answer:


Q9. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two.) 

A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer. 

B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer. 

C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer. 

D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer. 

E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer. 

F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer. 

Answer: B,C 

Explanation: Module characteristics show to which category the blocks belong to. Link: 

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html#wp708780 


Q10. During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct interviews with supporting staff to develop and propose a viable solution? 

A. Prepare 

B. Plan 

C. Design 

D. Implement 

E. Operate 

F. Optimize 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Prepare Phase The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a financial justification for a network strategy. 


Q11. During the design of a new campus network, the customer requests the ability to route overlapping IP addresses. What technology can be leveraged to meet this request? 

A. VRF 

B. VLANs 

C. VSS 

D. VPC 

Answer:


Q12. With respect to IPv6 addressing, from a design perspective, which of these statements is it important to keep in mind? 

A. IPv6 addressing provides convenience of anycast addressing without any configuration requirements. 

B. IPv6 does not use multicast addressing. 

C. An IPv6 router will not forward packets from one link to other links if the packet has either a link-local source or a link-local destination address. 

D. Dynamic address assignment requires DHCPv6. 

Answer:


Q13. Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows the network architect to create up to four separate control and data plane instances of the Nexus chassis? 

A. virtual port-channel 

B. virtual routing and forwarding 

C. virtual switching system 

D. virtual device context 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Virtualization 

Virtual local-area network (VLAN), virtual storage-area network (VSAN), and virtual device contexts (VDC) help to segment the LAN, SAN, and network devices instances. 

Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual switch for VMware ESX and ESXI help to deliver visibility and policy control for virtual machines (VM). 

Flexible networking options with support for all server form factors and vendors, including support for blade servers from Cisco, Dell, IBM, and HP with integrated Ethernet and Fiber Channel switches. 


Q14. A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private WAN? 

A. Enterprise Campus 

B. Enterprise Edge 

C. SP Edge Premise 

D. Remote Module 

Answer:


Q15. Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic? 

A. MGCP 

B. RTP 

C. SCCP 

D. CDP 

E. ICMP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

VoIP Control and Transport Protocols 

A number of different protocols are used in a VoIP environment for call control, device provisioning, and addressing. 

Figure 14-15 shows those protocols focused on VoIP control and transport. 


Q16. Which one of these statements is an example of how trust and identity management solutions should be deployed in the enterprise campus network? 

A. Authentication validation should be deployed as close to the data center as possible. 

B. Use the principle of top-down privilege, which means that each subject should have the privileges that are necessary to perform their defined tasks, as well as all the tasks for those roles below them. 

C. Mixed ACL rules, using combinations of specific sources and destinations, should be applied as close to the source as possible. 

D. For ease of management, practice defense in isolation - security mechanisms should be in place one time, in one place. 

Answer:

Explanation: Validating user authentication should be implemented as close to the source as possible, with an emphasis on strong authentication for access from untrusted networks. Access rules should enforce policy deployed throughout the network with the following guidelines: 

.Source-specific rules with any type destinations should be applied as close to the source as possible. 

.Destination-specific rules with any type sources should be applied as close to the destination as possible. 

.Mixed rules integrating both source and destination should be used as close to the source as possible. 

An integral part of identity and access control deployments is to allow only the necessary access. Highly distributed rules allow for greater granularity and scalability but, unfortunately, increase the management complexity. On the other hand, centralized rule deployment eases management but lacks flexibility and scalability. 

Practicing “defense in depth” by using security mechanisms that back each other up is an important concept to understand. For example, the perimeter Internet routers should use ACLs to filter packets in addition to the firewall inspecting packets at a deeper level. 

Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 13