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Q46. - (Topic 3) 

Which of the following is MOST critical for the successful implementation and maintenance of a security policy? 

A. Assimilation of the framework and intent of a written security policy by all appropriate parties 

B. Management support and approval for the implementation and maintenance of a security policy 

C. Enforcement of security rules by providing punitive actions for any violation of security rules 

D. Stringent implementation, monitoring and enforcing of rules by the security officer through access control software 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Assimilation of the framework and intent of a written security policy by the users of the system is critical to the successful implementation and maintenance of the security policy. A good password system may exist, but if the users of the system keep passwords written on their desk, the password is of little value. Management support and commitment is no doubt important, but for successful implementation and maintenance of security policy, educating the users on the importance of security is paramount. The stringent implementation, monitoring and enforcing of rules by the security officer through access control software, and provision for punitive actions for violation of security rules, is also required, along with the user's education onthe importance of security. 


Q47. - (Topic 4) 

Which of the following situations would increase the likelihood of fraud? 

A. Application programmers are implementing changes to production programs. 

B. Application programmers are implementing changes to test programs. 

C. Operations support staff are implementing changes to batch schedules. 

D. Database administrators are implementing changes to data structures. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Production programs are used for processing an enterprise's datA. It is imperative that controls on changes to production programs are stringent. Lack of control in this area could result in application programs being modified to manipulate the data.Application programmers are required to implement changes to test programs. These are used only in development and do not directly impact the live processing of datA. The implementation of changes to batch schedules by operations support staff willaffect the scheduling of the batches only; it does not impact the live datA. Database administrators are required to implement changes to data structures. This is required for reorganization of the database to allow for additions, modifications or deletions of fields or tables in the database. 


Q48. - (Topic 3) 

To address the risk of operations staff's failure to perform the daily backup, management requires that the systems administrator sign off on the daily backup. This is an example of risk: 

A. avoidance. 

B. transference. 

C. mitigation. 

D. acceptance. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Mitigation is the strategy that provides for the definition and implementation of controls to address the risk described. Avoidance is a strategy that provides for not implementing certain activities or processes that would incur risk. Transference is the strategy that provides for sharing risk with partners or taking insurance coverage. Acceptance is a strategy that provides for formal acknowledgement of the existence of a risk and the monitoring of that risk. 


Q49. - (Topic 2) 

The PRIMARY purpose of audit trails is to: 

A. improve response time for users. 

B. establish accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. 

C. improve the operational efficiency of the system. 

D. provide useful information to auditors who may wish to track transactions 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Enabling audit trails helps in establishing the accountability and responsibility of processed transactions by tracing transactions through the system. The objective of enabling software to provide audit trails is not to improve system efficiency, since it often involves additional processing which may in fact reduce response time for users. Enabling audit trails involves storage and thus occupies disk space. Choice D is also a valid reason; however, it is not the primary reason. 


Q50. - (Topic 2) 

An IS auditor is assigned to perform a postimplementation review of an application system. Which of the following situations may have impaired the independence of the IS auditor? The IS auditor: 

A. implemented a specific control during the development of the application system. 

B. designed an embedded audit module exclusively for auditing the application system. 

C. participated as a member of the application system project team, but did not have operational responsibilities. 

D. provided consulting advice concerning application system best practices. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Independence may be impaired if an IS auditor is, or has been, actively involved in the development, acquisition and implementation of the application system. Choices B and C are situations that do not impair an IS auditor's independence. Choice D isincorrect because an IS auditor's independence is not impaired by providing advice on known best practices. 


Q51. - (Topic 3) 

The MOST likely effect of the lack of senior management commitment to IT strategic planning is: 

A. a lack of investment in technology. 

B. a lack of a methodology for systems development. 

C. technology not aligning with the organization's objectives. 

D. an absence of control over technology contracts. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A steering committee should exist to ensure that the IT strategies support the organization's goals. The absence of an information technology committee or a committee not composed of senior managers would be an indication of a lack of top-level management commitment. This condition would increase the risk that IT would not be aligned with the organization's strategy. 


Q52. - (Topic 1) 

Run-to-run totals can verify data through which stage(s) of application processing? 

A. Initial 

B. Various 

C. Final 

D. Output 

Answer:

Explanation: Run-to-run totals can verify data through various stages of application processing. 


Q53. - (Topic 1) 

If an IS auditor observes that individual modules of a system perform correctly in development project tests, the auditor should inform management of the positive results and recommend further: 

A. Documentation development 

B. Comprehensive integration testing 

C. Full unit testing 

D. Full regression testing 

Answer:

Explanation: If an IS auditor observes that individual modules of a system perform correctly in development project tests, the auditor should inform management of the positive results and recommend further comprehensive integration testing. 


Q54. - (Topic 1) 

What increases encryption overhead and cost the most? 

A. A long symmetric encryption key 

B. A long asymmetric encryption key 

C. A long Advance Encryption Standard (AES) key 

D. A long Data Encryption Standard (DES) key 

Answer:

Explanation: A long asymmetric encryption key (public key encryption) increases encryption overhead and cost. All other answers are single shared symmetric keys. 


Q55. - (Topic 1) 

Which of the following is an effective method for controlling downloading of files via FTP? Choose the BEST answer. 

A. An application-layer gateway, or proxy firewall, but not stateful inspection firewalls 

B. An application-layer gateway, or proxy firewall 

C. A circuit-level gateway 

D. A first-generation packet-filtering firewall 

Answer:

Explanation: Application-layer gateways, or proxy firewalls, are an effective method for controlling downloading of files via FTP. Because FTP is an OSI application-layer protocol, the most effective firewall needs to be capable of inspecting through the application layer. 


Q56. - (Topic 4) 

While evaluating software development practices in an organization, an IS auditor notes that the quality assurance (QA) function reports to project management. The MOST important concern for an IS auditor is the: 

A. effectiveness of the QA function because it should interact between project management and user management 

B. efficiency of the QA function because it should interact with the project implementation team. 

C. effectiveness of the project manager because the project manager should interact with the QA function. 

D. efficiency of the project manager because the QA function will need to communicate with the project implementation team. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

To be effective the quality assurance (QA) function should be independent of project management. The QA function should never interact with the project implementation team since this can impact effectiveness. The project manager does not interact with the QA function, which should not impact the effectiveness of the project manager. The QA function does not interact with the project implementation team, which should not impact the efficiency of the project manager. 


Q57. - (Topic 1) 

Which of the following do digital signatures provide? 

A. Authentication and integrity of data 

B. Authentication and confidentiality of data 

C. Confidentiality and integrity of data 

D. Authentication and availability of data 

Answer:

Explanation: The primary purpose of digital signatures is to provide authentication and integrity of datA. 


Q58. - (Topic 2) 

Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there have been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? 

A. Test data run 

B. Code review 

C. Automated code comparison 

D. Review of code migration procedures 

Answer:

Explanation: 

An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements.A code review can be used as a means of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 


Q59. - (Topic 1) 

IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using 4GLs? 

A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities 

B. Complex programming language subsets 

C. Lack of portability across operating systems 

D. Inability to perform data intensive operations 

Answer:

Explanation: 

4GLs are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators. 


Q60. - (Topic 1) 

What kind of testing should programmers perform following any changes to an application or system? 

A. Unit, module, and full regression testing 

B. Module testing 

C. Unit testing 

D. Regression testing 

Answer:

Explanation: Programmers should perform unit, module, and full regression testing 

following any changes to an application or system.