Exam Code: SY0-401 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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Q571. A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?
A. Application hardening
B. Application change management
C. Application patch management
D. Application firewall review
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question states that operating system updates are applied but not other software updates. The ‘other software’ in this case would be applications. Software updates includes functionality updates and more importantly security updates. The process of applying software updates or ‘patches’ to applications is known as ‘application patch management’. Application patch management is an effective way of mitigating security risks associated with software applications.
Q572. Fuzzing is a security assessment technique that allows testers to analyze the behavior of software applications under which of the following conditions?
A. Unexpected input
B. Invalid output
C. Parameterized input
D. Valid output
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failed validation, or memory leaks.
Q573. Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Answer: C
Explanation:
By validating user input and preventing special characters, we can prevent the injection of client-side scripting code. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Q574. Which of the following is true about PKI? (Select TWO).
A. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the public key can decrypt it.
B. When encrypting a message with the private key, only the private key can decrypt it.
C. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the CA can decrypt it.
D. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the private key can decrypt it.
E. When encrypting a message with the private key, only the public key can decrypt it.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
E: You encrypt data with the private key and decrypt with the public key, though the opposite is
much more frequent.
Public-key cryptography, also known as asymmetric cryptography, is a class of cryptographic
protocols based on algorithms that require two separate keys, one of which is secret (or private)
and one of which is public. Although different, the two parts of this key pair are mathematically
linked.
D: In a PKI the sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key. The receiver decrypts the
data using his own private key.
PKI is a two-key, asymmetric system with four main components: certificate authority (CA),
registration authority (RA), RSA (the encryption algorithm), and digital certificates. Messages are
encrypted with a public key and decrypted with a private key.
A PKI example:
1.
You want to send an encrypted message to Jordan, so you request his public key.
2.
Jordan responds by sending you that key.
3.
You use the public key he sends you to encrypt the message.
4.
You send the message to him.
5.
Jordan uses his private key to decrypt the message.
Q575. Which of the following tests a number of security controls in the least invasive manner?
A. Vulnerability scan
B. Threat assessment
C. Penetration test
D. Ping sweep
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning has minimal impact on network resource due to the passive nature of the scanning. A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.
A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security.
Replace SY0-401 practice question:
Q576. A firewall technician has been instructed to disable all non-secure ports on a corporate firewall. The technician has blocked traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139. The technician has allowed traffic on ports 22 and 443. Which of the following correctly lists the protocols blocked and allowed?
A. Blocked: TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: HTTPS, FTP
B. Blocked: FTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, HTTPS
C. Blocked: SFTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SSH, SCP, HTTPS
D. Blocked: FTP, HTTP, HTTPS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, NetBIOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question states that traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139 is blocked, while ports 22 and 443 are allowed.
Port 21 is used for FTP by default.
Port 69 is used for TFTP.
Port 80 is used for HTTP.
Ports 137-139 are used for NetBIOS.
VMM uses SFTP over default port 22.
Port 22 is used for SSH by default.
SCP runs over TCP port 22 by default.
Port 443 is used for HTTPS.
Q577. After a recent breach, the security administrator performs a wireless survey of the corporate network. The security administrator notices a problem with the following output:
MAC SSID ENCRYPTION POWER BEACONS
00:10:A1:36:12:CC MYCORP WPA2 CCMP 60 1202
00:10:A1:49:FC:37 MYCORP WPA2 CCMP 70 9102
FB:90:11:42:FA:99 MYCORP WPA2 CCMP 40 3031
00:10:A1:AA:BB:CC MYCORP WPA2 CCMP 55 2021 00:10:A1:FA:B1:07 MYCORP WPA2 CCMP 30 6044
Given that the corporate wireless network has been standardized, which of the following attacks is underway?
A. Evil twin
B. IV attack
C. Rogue AP
D. DDoS
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that the corporate wireless network has been standardized. By ‘standardized’ it means the wireless network access points are running on hardware from the same vendor. We can see this from the MAC addresses used. The first half of a MAC address is vendor specific. The second half is network adapter specific. We have four devices with MAC addresses that start with 00:10:A1. The “odd one out” is the device with a MAC address starting FB:90:11. This device is from a different vendor. The SSID of the wireless network on this access point is the same as the other legitimate access points. Therefore, the access point with a MAC address starting FB:90:11 is impersonating the corporate access points. This is known as an Evil Twin.
An evil twin, in the context of network security, is a rogue or fake wireless access point (WAP) that appears as a genuine hotspot offered by a legitimate provider. In an evil twin attack, an eavesdropper or hacker fraudulently creates this rogue hotspot to collect the personal data of unsuspecting users. Sensitive data can be stolen by spying on a connection or using a phishing technique. For example, a hacker using an evil twin exploit may be positioned near an authentic Wi-Fi access point and discover the service set identifier (SSID) and frequency. The hacker may then send a radio signal using the exact same frequency and SSID. To end users, the rogue evil twin appears as their legitimate hotspot with the same name. In wireless transmissions, evil twins are not a new phenomenon. Historically, they were known as honeypots or base station clones. With the advancement of wireless technology and the use of wireless devices in public areas, it is very easy for novice users to set up evil twin exploits.
Q578. Which of the following devices is used for the transparent security inspection of network traffic by redirecting user packets prior to sending the packets to the intended destination?
A. Proxies
B. Load balancers
C. Protocol analyzer
D. VPN concentrator
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q579. Which of the following solutions provides the most flexibility when testing new security controls prior to implementation?
A. Trusted OS
B. Host software baselining
C. OS hardening
D. Virtualization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q580. A security administrator wants to deploy a physical security control to limit an individual’s access into a sensitive area. Which of the following should be implemented?
A. Guards
B. CCTV
C. Bollards
D. Spike strip
Answer: A
Explanation:
A guard can be intimidating and respond to a situation and in a case where you want to limit an individual’s access to a sensitive area a guard would be the most effective.