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Q21. Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
B. It sends VTPv2 packets only.
C. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
D. It sends a special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packet information.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a VTP version 3 device on a trunk port receives messages from a VTP version 2 device, the VTP version 3 device sends a scaled-down version of the VLAN database on that particular trunk in a VTP version 2 format. A VTP version 3 device does not send out VTP version 2-formatted packets on a trunk port unless it first receives VTP version 2 packets on that trunk. If the VTP version 3 device does not receive VTP version 2 packets for an interval of time on the trunk port, the VTP version 3 device stops transmitting VTP version 2 packets on that trunk port. Even when a VTP version 3 device detects a VTP version 2 device on a trunk port, the VTP version 3 device continues to send VTP version 3 packets in addition to VTP version 3 device 2 packets, to allow two kinds of neighbors to coexist on the trunk. VTP version 3 sends VTP version 3 and VTP version 2 updates on VTP version 2-detected trunks.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/vtp.html
Q22. What is the main component of Unified MPLS?
A. Multiple IGPs in the network are used, where the loopback IP addresses of the PE routers are aggregated on the area border routers.
B. Confederations are used to provide scalability.
C. The loopback prefixes from one IGP area are redistributed into BGP without changing the next hop.
D. The ABR is a BGP route reflector and sets next-hop to self for all reflected routes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since the core and aggregation parts of the network are integrated and end-to-end LSPs are provided, the Unified MPLS solution is also referred to as "Seamless MPLS." New technologies or protocols are not used here, only MPLS, Label Distribution Protocol (LDP), IGP, and BGP. Since you do not want to distribute the loopback prefixes of the PE routers from one part of the network into another part, you need to carry the prefixes in BGP. The Internal Border Gateway Protocol (iBGP) is used in one network, so the next hop address of the prefixes is the loopback prefixes of the PE routers, which is not known by the IGP in the other parts of the network. This means that the next hop address cannot be used to recurse to an IGP prefix. The trick is to make the ABR routers Route Reflectors (RR) and set the next hop to self, even for the reflected iBGP prefixes. In order for this to work, a new knob is needed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/multiprotocol-label-switching-mpls/mpls/116127-configure-technology-00.html
Q23. DRAG DROP
Drag each show command on the left to the description of its output on a PE router on the right.
Answer:
Q24. Which VPN technology requires the use of an external key server?
A. GETVPN
B. GDOI
C. SSL
D. DMVPN
E. IPsec F. L2TPv3
Answer: A
Explanation:
A GETVPN deployment has primarily three components, Key Server (KS), Group Member (GM), and Group Domain of Interpretation (GDOI) protocol. GMs do encrypt/decrypt the traffic and KS distribute the encryption key to all the group members. The KS decides on one single data encryption key for a given life time. Since all GMs use the same key, any GM can decrypt the traffic encrypted by any other GM. GDOI protocol is used between the GM and KS for group key and group SA management. Minimum one KS is required for a GETVPN deployment.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport-vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html
Q25. Which two packet types does an RTP session consist of? (Choose two.)
A. TCP
B. RTCP
C. RTP
D. ICMP
E. BOOTP
F. ARP
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
An RTP session is established for each multimedia stream. A session consists of an IP address with a pair of ports for RTP and RTCP. For example, audio and video streams use separate RTP sessions, enabling a receiver to deselect a particular stream. The ports which form a session are negotiated using other protocols such as RTSP (using SDP in the setup method) and SIP. According to the specification, an RTP port should be even and the RTCP port is the next higher odd port number.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real-time_Transport_Protocol
Q26. Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can't avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host's application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage
microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Q27. Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)
B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data)
C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)
D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Modes are:
Mode monitor passive
Passive monitoring is the act of PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by Netflow. Passive monitoring is typically only recommended in Internet edge deployments because active probing is ineffective because of security policies that block probing. PfR, when enabled, automatically enables Netflow on the managed interfaces on the Border Routers. By aggregating this information on the Border Routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the Master Controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned.
Mode monitor active
Active monitoring is the act of generating Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. PfR can either implicitly generates active probes when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or the network manager can explicitly configured probes in the PfR configuration. When jitter probes are used (common use case), Target Discovery is used to learn the respond address and to automatically generate the probes.
Mode monitor Fast
This mode generates active probes through all exists continuously at the configured probe frequency. This differs from either active or both modes in that these modes only generate probes through alternate paths (exits) in the event the current path is out-of-policy.
Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/PfR:Technology_Overview#Mode_monitor_passive
Q28. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop Layer 2 QoS Commands on the left to the corresponding functions on the right.
Answer:
Q29. Which object tracking function tracks the combined states of multiple objects?
A. application
B. interface
C. stub-object
D. list
Answer: D
Q30. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about how the configuration processes Telnet traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet traffic from 10.1.1.9 to 10.10.10.1 is dropped.
B. All Telnet traffic is dropped.
C. Telnet traffic from 10.10.10.1 to 10.1.1.9 is permitted.
D. Telnet traffic from 10.1.1.9 to 10.10.10.1 is permitted.
E. Telnet traffic is permitted to all IP addresses.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The ACL applied to the COPP policy matches only telnet traffic from 10.1.1.9 to 10.10.10.1, all other telnet traffic is not matched and therefore not used in the COPP policy, which means this traffic will be handled normally (accepted). For telnet traffic from 10.1.1.9 to 10.10.10.1, the COPP policy has defined this traffic as an exceed, and dropped.