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2021 Jan SY0-401 free practice test
Q231. The act of magnetically erasing all of the data on a disk is known as:
A. Wiping
B. Dissolution
C. Scrubbing
D. Degaussing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Degaussing is a form a data wiping that entails the use of magnets to alter the magnetic structure of the storage medium.
Q232. Human Resources suspect an employee is accessing the employee salary database. The administrator is asked to find out who it is. In order to complete this task, which of the following is a security control that should be in place?
A. Shared accounts should be prohibited.
B. Account lockout should be enabled
C. Privileges should be assigned to groups rather than individuals
D. Time of day restrictions should be in use
Answer: A
Explanation:
Since distinguishing between the actions of one person and another isn’t possible if they both use a shared account, shared accounts should not be allowed. If shared accounts are being used, the administrator will find the account, but have more than one suspect. To nullify this occurrence, Shared accounts should be prohibited.
Q233. Elastic cloud computing environments often reuse the same physical hardware for multiple customers over time as virtual machines are instantiated and deleted. This has important implications for which of the following data security concerns?
A. Hardware integrity
B. Data confidentiality
C. Availability of servers
D. Integrity of data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data that is not kept separate or segregated will impact on that data’s confidentiality maybe being compromised. Be aware of the fact that your data is only as safe as the data with which it is integrated. For example, assume that your client database is hosted on a server that another company is also using to test an application that they are creating. If their application obtains root-level access at some point (such as to change passwords) and crashes at that point, then the user running the application could be left with root permissions and conceivably be to access data on the server for which they are not authorized, such as your client database. Data segregation is crucial; keep your data on secure servers.
Q234. The concept of rendering data passing between two points over an IP based network impervious to all but the most sophisticated advanced persistent threats is BEST categorized as which of the following?
A. Stream ciphers
B. Transport encryption
C. Key escrow
D. Block ciphers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Transport encryption is the process of encrypting data ready to be transmitted over an insecure network. A common example of this would be online banking or online purchases where sensitive information such as account numbers or credit card numbers is transmitted.
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a protocol that ensures privacy between communicating applications and their users on the Internet. When a server and client communicate, TLS ensures that no third party may eavesdrop or tamper with any message. TLS is the successor to the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
Q235. Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server.
After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
A protocol analyzer is a tool used to examine the contents of network traffic. Commonly known as a sniffer, a protocol analyzer can be a dedicated hardware device or software installed onto a typical host system. In either case, a protocol analyzer is first a packet capturing tool that can collect network traffic and store it in memory or onto a storage device. Once a packet is captured, it can be analyzed either with complex automated tools and scripts or manually.
Update SY0-401 simulations:
Q236. Company employees are required to have workstation client certificates to access a bank website. These certificates were backed up as a precautionary step before the new computer upgrade. After the upgrade and restoration, users state they can access the bank’s website, but not login. Which is the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. The IP addresses of the clients have change
B. The client certificate passwords have expired on the server
C. The certificates have not been installed on the workstations
D. The certificates have been installed on the CA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The computer certificates must be installed on the upgraded client computers.
Q237. An IT security manager is asked to provide the total risk to the business. Which of the following calculations would he security manager choose to determine total risk?
A. (Threats X vulnerability X asset value) x controls gap
B. (Threats X vulnerability X profit) x asset value
C. Threats X vulnerability X control gap
D. Threats X vulnerability X asset value
Answer: D
Explanation:
Threats X vulnerability X asset value is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF). This is used to calculate a risk.
Q238. Ann is an employee in the accounting department and would like to work on files from her home computer. She recently heard about a new personal cloud storage service with an easy web interface. Before uploading her work related files into the cloud for access, which of the following is the MOST important security concern Ann should be aware of?
A. Size of the files
B. Availability of the files
C. Accessibility of the files from her mobile device
D. Sensitivity of the files
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q239. An email client says a digital signature is invalid and the sender cannot be verified. The recipient is concerned with which of the following concepts?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Remediation
Answer: A
Explanation:
A digital signature is similar in function to a standard signature on a document. It validates the integrity of the message and the sender. The message is encrypted using the encryption system, and a second piece of information, the digital signature, is added to the message. Digital Signatures is used to validate the integrity of the message and the sender. Integrity means the message can’t be altered without detection.
Q240. Which of the following is a control that allows a mobile application to access and manipulate information which should only be available by another application on the same mobile device (e.g. a music application posting the name of the current song playing on the device on a social media site)?
A. Co-hosted application
B. Transitive trust
C. Mutually exclusive access
D. Dual authentication
Answer: B
Explanation: