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2021 Mar SY0-401 dumps
Q351. A security administrator develops a web page and limits input into the fields on the web page as well as filters special characters in output. The administrator is trying to prevent which of the following attacks?
A. Spoofing
B. XSS
C. Fuzzing
D. Pharming
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in Web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject client-side script into Web pages viewed by other users. Cross-site scripting uses known vulnerabilities in web-based applications, their servers, or plug-in systems on which they rely. Exploiting one of these, attackers fold malicious content into the content being delivered from the compromised site. When the resulting combined content arrives at the client-side web browser, it has all been delivered from the trusted source, and thus operates under the permissions granted to that system. By finding ways of injecting malicious scripts into web pages, an attacker can gain elevated access-privileges to sensitive page content, session cookies, and a variety of other information maintained by the browser on behalf of the user.
By validating user input and preventing special characters, we can prevent the injection of client-side scripting code.
Q352. Which of the following application security principles involves inputting random data into a program?
A. Brute force attack
B. Sniffing
C. Fuzzing
D. Buffer overflow
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failed validation, or memory leaks.
Q353. TION NO: 134
Which of the following ports is used for SSH, by default?
A. 23
B. 32
C. 12
D. 22
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.
Q354. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk of two or more companies working together under a Memorandum of Understanding?
A. Budgetary considerations may not have been written into the MOU, leaving an entity to absorb more cost than intended at signing.
B. MOUs have strict policies in place for services performed between the entities and the penalties for compromising a partner are high.
C. MOUs are generally loose agreements and therefore may not have strict guidelines in place to protect sensitive data between the two entities.
D. MOUs between two companies working together cannot be held to the same legal standards as SLAs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Memorandum of Understanding This document is used in many settings in the information industry. It is a brief summary of which party is responsible for what portion of the work. For example, Company A may be responsible for maintaining the database server and Company B may be responsible for telecommunications. MOUs are not legally binding but they carry a degree of seriousness and mutual respect, stronger than a gentlemen’s agreement. Often, MOUs are the first steps towards a legal contract.
Q355. A security administrator examines a network session to a compromised database server with a packet analyzer. Within the session there is a repeated series of the hex character 90 (x90).
Which of the following attack types has occurred?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Cross-site scripting
C. XML injection
D. SQL injection
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation The hex character 90 (x90) means NOP or No Op or No Operation. In a buffer overflow attack, the buffer can be filled and overflowed with No Op commands. A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user's files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
Up to date SY0-401 exam engine:
Q356. An Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO) has been placed in charge of a classified peer-to-peer network that cannot connect to the Internet. The ISSO can update the antivirus definitions manually, but which of the following steps is MOST important?
A. A full scan must be run on the network after the DAT file is installed.
B. The signatures must have a hash value equal to what is displayed on the vendor site.
C. The definition file must be updated within seven days.
D. All users must be logged off of the network prior to the installation of the definition file.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A hash value can be used to uniquely identify secret information. This requires that the hash function is collision resistant, which means that it is very hard to find data that generate the same hash value and thus it means that in hashing two different inputs will not yield the same output. Thus the hash value must be equal to that displayed on the vendor site.
Q357. One of the most basic ways to protect the confidentiality of data on a laptop in the event the device is physically stolen is to implement which of the following?
A. File level encryption with alphanumeric passwords
B. Biometric authentication and cloud storage
C. Whole disk encryption with two-factor authentication
D. BIOS passwords and two-factor authentication
Answer: C
Explanation: Whole-disk encryption only provides reasonable protection when the system is fully powered off. to make the most of the defensive strength of whole-disk encryption, a long, complex passphrase should be used to unlock the system on bootup. Combining whole-disk encryption with two factor authentication would further increase protection.
Q358. A security engineer is given new application extensions each month that need to be secured prior to implementation. They do not want the new extensions to invalidate or interfere with existing application security. Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that the new requirements are approved by the appropriate personnel. Which of the following should be in place to meet these two goals? (Select TWO).
A. Patch Audit Policy
B. Change Control Policy
C. Incident Management Policy
D. Regression Testing Policy
E. Escalation Policy
F. Application Audit Policy
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A backout (regression testing) is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fi ne until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfi xes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout. A change control policy refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets in the event of changes occurring.
Q359. A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution.
Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 21
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 53
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.
Q360. Which of the following concepts is a term that directly relates to customer privacy considerations?
A. Data handling policies
B. Personally identifiable information
C. Information classification
D. Clean desk policies
Answer: B
Explanation:
Personally identifiable information (PII) is a catchall for any data that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. This data can be anything from the person’s name to a fingerprint (think biometrics), credit card number, or patient record. This has a direct relation to customer privacy considerations.