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2021 Mar SY0-401 free exam
Q21. Digital certificates can be used to ensure which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Verification
D. Authorization
E. Non-repudiation
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Digital Signatures is used to validate the integrity of the message and the sender. Digital certificates refer to cryptography which is mainly concerned with Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication, Nonrepudiation and Access Control. Nonrepudiation prevents one party from denying actions they carried out.
Q22. A database administrator would like to start encrypting database exports stored on the SAN, but the storage administrator warns that this may drastically increase the amount of disk space used by the exports. Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in disk space usage?
A. Deduplication is not compatible with encryption
B. The exports are being stored on smaller SAS drives
C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files
D. The SAN already uses encryption at rest
Answer: C
Explanation:
Encryption adds overhead to the data which results in and increase in file size. This overhead is attached to each file and could include the encryption/decryption key, data recovery files and data decryption field in file header. As a result, requires increased storage space.
Q23. In which of the following categories would creating a corporate privacy policy, drafting acceptable use policies, and group based access control be classified?
A. Security control frameworks
B. Best practice
C. Access control methodologies
D. Compliance activity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Best practices are based on what is known in the industry and those methods that have consistently shown superior results over those achieved by other means. Furthermore best practices are applied to all aspects in the work environment.
Q24. An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q25. Sara, a security engineer, is testing encryption ciphers for performance. Which of the following ciphers offers strong encryption with the FASTEST speed?
A. 3DES
B. Blowfish
C. Serpent
D. AES256
Answer: B
Explanation:
Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very fast speeds. Blowfish is a fast, except when changing keys. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits).
Renewal SY0-401 test questions:
Q26. A network administrator has recently updated their network devices to ensure redundancy is in place so that:
A. switches can redistribute routes across the network.
B. environmental monitoring can be performed.
C. single points of failure are removed.
D. hot and cold aisles are functioning.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Redundancy refers to systems that either are duplicated or fail over to other systems in the event of a malfunction. The best way to remove an SPOF from your environment is to add redundancy.
Q27. Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL?
PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80
PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443
A. It implements stateful packet filtering.
B. It implements bottom-up processing.
C. It failed closed.
D. It implements an implicit deny.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn’t present.
Q28. An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance. Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?
A. Dipole
B. Yagi
C. Sector
D. Omni
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the antenna's directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.
Q29. Which of the following is the BEST reason to provide user awareness and training programs for organizational staff?
A. To ensure proper use of social media
B. To reduce organizational IT risk
C. To detail business impact analyses
D. To train staff on zero-days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ideally, a security awareness training program for the entire organization should cover the following areas: Importance of security Responsibilities of people in the organization Policies and procedures Usage policies Account and password-selection criteria Social engineering prevention
You can accomplish this training either by using internal staff or by hiring outside trainers. This type of training will significantly reduce the organizational IT risk.
Q30. A security researcher wants to reverse engineer an executable file to determine if it is malicious. The file was found on an underused server and appears to contain a zero-day exploit. Which of the following can the researcher do to determine if the file is malicious in nature?
A. TCP/IP socket design review
B. Executable code review
C. OS Baseline comparison
D. Software architecture review
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zero-Day Exploits begin exploiting holes in any software the very day it is discovered. It is very difficult to respond to a zero-day exploit. Often, the only thing that you as a security administrator can do is to turn off the service. Although this can be a costly undertaking in terms of productivity, it is the only way to keep the network safe. In this case you want to check if the executable file is malicious. Since a baseline represents a secure state is would be possible to check the nature of the executable file in an isolated environment against the OS baseline.