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2021 Apr SY0-401 dumps
Q531. A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Answer: D
Explanation:
Group-based privileges assign privileges or access to a resource to all members of a group. Group-based access control grants every member of the group the same level of access to a specific object.
Q532. Which of the following must be kept secret for a public key infrastructure to remain secure?
A. Certificate Authority
B. Certificate revocation list
C. Public key ring
D. Private key
Answer: D
Explanation:
The private key, which is also called the secret key, must be kept secret.
Q533. Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Q534. Joe, the Chief Technical Officer (CTO), is concerned about new malware being introduced into the corporate network. He has tasked the security engineers to implement a technology that is capable of alerting the team when unusual traffic is on the network. Which of the following types of technologies will BEST address this scenario?
A. Application Firewall
B. Anomaly Based IDS
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Signature IDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Anomaly-based detection watches the ongoing activity in the environment and looks for abnormal occurrences. An anomaly-based monitoring or detection method relies on definitions of all valid forms of activity. This database of known valid activity allows the tool to detect any and all anomalies. Anomaly-based detection is commonly used for protocols. Because all the valid and legal forms of a protocol are known and can be defined, any variations from those known valid constructions are seen as anomalies.
Q535. The security manager wants to unify the storage of credential, phone numbers, office numbers, and address information into one system. Which of the following is a system that will support the requirement on its own?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS
D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Up to the minute SY0-401 exam answers:
Q536. Which of the following types of application attacks would be used to identify malware causing security breaches that have NOT yet been identified by any trusted sources?
A. Zero-day
B. LDAP injection
C. XML injection
D. Directory traversal
Answer: A
Explanation:
The security breaches have NOT yet been identified. This is zero day vulnerability. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
Q537. An internal auditor is concerned with privilege creep that is associated with transfers inside the company. Which mitigation measure would detect and correct this?
A. User rights reviews
B. Least privilege and job rotation
C. Change management
D. Change Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
A privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of an organization. This means that a user rights review will reveal whether user accounts have been assigned according to their ‘new’ job descriptions , or if there are privilege creep culprits after transfers has occurred.
Q538. Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about the
overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gray box testing, also called gray box analysis, is a strategy for software debugging in which the tester has limited knowledge of the internal details of the program. A gray box is a device, program or system whose workings are partially understood. Gray box testing can be contrasted with black box testing, a scenario in which the tester has no knowledge or access to the internal workings of a program, or white box testing, a scenario in which the internal particulars are fully known. Gray box testing is commonly used in penetration tests. Gray box testing is considered to be non-intrusive and unbiased because it does not require that the tester have access to the source code. With respect to internal processes, gray box testing treats a program as a black box that must be analyzed from the outside. During a gray box test, the person may know how the system components interact but not have detailed knowledge about internal program functions and operation. A clear distinction exists between the developer and the tester, thereby minimizing the risk of personnel conflicts.
Q539. Matt, an administrator, is concerned about the wireless network being discovered by war driving.
Which of the following can be done to mitigate this?
A. Enforce a policy for all users to authentic through a biometric device.
B. Disable all SSID broadcasting.
C. Ensure all access points are running the latest firmware.
D. Move all access points into public access areas.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B: War driving is the act of using a detection tool to look for wireless networking signals. The setting making a wireless network closed (or at least hidden) is the disabling of service set identifier (SSID) broadcasting. Thus by disabling all SSID broadcasting you can mitigate the risk of war driving.
Q540. A security analyst needs to ensure all external traffic is able to access the company’s front-end servers but protect all access to internal resources. Which of the following network design elements would MOST likely be recommended?
A. DMZ
B. Cloud computing
C. VLAN
D. Virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.