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Q69. Refer to the exhibit.
How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?
A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN
Answer: A
Q70. after UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Answer: B
Q71. What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
Answer: D
Q72. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a voice VLAN?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1024
Answer: B
Q73. Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Answer: BCD
Q74. Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?
A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors
Answer: A
Q75. Which AAA Authorization type includes PPP, SLIP, and ARAP connections?
A. network
B. IP mobile
C. EXEC
D. auth-proxy
Answer: A
Q76. Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use VTP versions 1 or 2?
A. transparent
B. client
C. server
D. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.
Answer: D
Q77. A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Answer: B
Q78. Refer to the exhibit.
Which login credentials are required when connecting to the console port in this output?
A. none required
B. username cisco with password cisco
C. no username with password linepass
D. login authentication default
Answer: A
Q79. Refer to the exhibit.
A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?
A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.
Answer: C
Q80. Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose two.)
A. PPP
B. DTP
C. ISL
D. HDLC
E. DLCI
F. DOT1Q
Answer: C,F
Q81. A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. Which configuration must be made before the private VLAN is configured?
A. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANs.
B. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
C. Configure VTP Transparent Mode.
D. Enable VTP version 3.
Answer: C
Q82. Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
Answer: D
Q83. Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load- balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Answer: B
Q84. Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Answer: A
Q85. A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Answer: A