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2021 Aug CAS-001 pdf exam
Q11. - (Topic 4)
A company’s security policy states that its own internally developed proprietary Internet facing software must be resistant to web application attacks. Which of the following methods provides the MOST protection against unauthorized access to stored database information?
A. Require all development to follow secure coding practices.
B. Require client-side input filtering on all modifiable fields.
C. Escape character sequences at the application tier.
D. Deploy a WAF with application specific signatures.
Answer: A
Q12. - (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST defines the term e-discovery?
A. A product that provides IT-specific governance, risk management, and compliance.
B. A form of reconnaissance used by penetration testers to discover listening hosts.
C. A synonymous term for computer emergency response and incident handling.
D. A process of producing electronically stored information for use as evidence.
Answer: D
Q13. - (Topic 4)
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST important?
A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
Answer: A
Q14. - (Topic 2)
Company XYZ has invested an increasing amount in security due to the changing threat landscape. The company is going through a cost cutting exercise and the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has queried the security budget allocated to the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO). At the same time, the CISO is actively promoting business cases for additional funding to support new initiatives. These initiatives will mitigate several security incidents that have occurred due to ineffective controls.
A security advisor is engaged to assess the current controls framework and to provide recommendations on whether preventative, detective, or corrective controls should be implemented. How should the security advisor respond when explaining which controls to implement?
A. Preventative controls are useful before an event occurs, detective controls are useful during an event, and corrective controls are useful after an event has occurred. A combination of controls can be used.
B. Corrective controls are more costly to implement, but are only needed for real attacks or high value assets; therefore, controls should only be put in place after a real attack has occurred.
C. Detective controls are less costly to implement than preventative controls; therefore, they should be encouraged wherever possible. Corrective controls are used during an event or security incident. Preventative controls are hard to achieve in practice due to current market offerings.
D. Always advise the use of preventative controls as this will prevent security incidents from occurring in the first place. Detective and corrective controls are redundant compensating controls and are not required if preventative controls are implemented.
Answer: A
Q15. - (Topic 3)
A security consultant is called into a small advertising business to recommend which security policies and procedures would be most helpful to the business. The business is comprised of 20 employees, operating off of two shared servers. One server houses employee data and the other houses client data. All machines are on the same local network. Often these employees must work remotely from client sites, but do not access either of the servers remotely. Assuming no security policies or procedures are in place right now, which of the following would be the MOST applicable for implementation? (Select TWO).
A. Password Policy
B. Data Classification Policy
C. Wireless Access Procedure
D. VPN Policy
E. Database Administrative Procedure
Answer: A,B
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Q16. - (Topic 4)
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is reviewing the IT centric BIA and RA documentation. The documentation shows that a single 24 hours downtime in a critical business function will cost the business $2.3 million. Additionally, the business unit which depends on the critical business function has determined that there is a high probability that a threat will materializebased on historical data. The CIO’s budget does not allow for full system hardware replacement in case of a catastrophic failure, nor does it allow for the purchase of additional compensating controls. Which of the following should the CIO recommend to the finance director to minimize financial loss?
A. The company should mitigate the risk.
B. The company should transfer the risk.
C. The company should avoid the risk.
D. The company should accept the risk.
Answer: B
Q17. - (Topic 2)
During a specific incident response and recovery process action, the response team determines that it must first speak to the person ultimately responsible for the data. With whom should the response team speak FIRST?
A. Data User
B. Data Owner
C. Business Owner
D. Data Custodian
Answer: B
Q18. - (Topic 3)
Company ABC is planning to outsource its Customer Relationship Management system (CRM) and marketing / leads management to Company XYZ.
Which of the following is the MOST important to be considered before going ahead with the service?
A. Internal auditors have approved the outsourcing arrangement.
B. Penetration testing can be performed on the externally facing web system.
C. Ensure there are security controls within the contract and the right to audit.
D. A physical site audit is performed on Company XYZ’s management / operation.
Answer: C
Q19. - (Topic 1)
Several critical servers are unresponsive after an update was installed. Other computers that have not yet received the same update are operational, but are vulnerable to certain buffer overflow attacks. The security administrator is required to ensure all systems have the latest updates while minimizing any downtime.
Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy to use to ensure a system is properly updated and operational?
A. Distributed patch management system where all systems in production are patched as updates are released.
B. Central patch management system where all systems in production are patched by automatic updates as they are released.
C. Central patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment after being installed on a live production system.
D. Distributed patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment prior to being installed on a live production system.
Answer: D
Q20. - (Topic 3)
An architect has been engaged to write the security viewpoint of a new initiative. Which of the following BEST describes a repeatable process that can be used for establishing the security architecture?
A. Inspect a previous architectural document. Based on the historical decisions made, consult the architectural control and pattern library within the organization and select the controls that appear to best fit this new architectural need.
B. Implement controls based on the system needs. Perform a risk analysis of the system. For any remaining risks, perform continuous monitoring.
C. Classify information types used within the system into levels of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Determine minimum required security controls. Conduct a risk analysis. Decide on which security controls to implement.
D. Perform a risk analysis of the system. Avoid extreme risks. Mitigate high risks. Transfer medium risks and accept low risks. Perform continuous monitoring to ensure that the system remains at an adequate security posture.
Answer: C