CompTIA CAS-003 Dumps 2021

NEW QUESTION 1
A company has hired an external security consultant to conduct a thorough review of all aspects of corporate security. The company is particularly concerned about unauthorized access to its physical offices resulting in network compromises. Which of the following should the consultant recommend be performed to evaluate potential risks?

• A. The consultant should attempt to gain access to physical offices through social engineering and then attempt data exfiltration
• B. The consultant should be granted access to all physical access control systems to review logs and evaluate the likelihood of the threat
• C. The company should conduct internal audits of access logs and employee social media feeds to identify potential insider threats
• D. The company should install a temporary CCTV system to detect unauthorized access to physical offices

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
A security analyst is attempting to break into a client’s secure network. The analyst was not given prior information about the client, except for a block of public IP addresses that are currently in use. After network enumeration, the analyst’s NEXT step is to perform:

• A. a gray-box penetration test
• B. a risk analysis
• C. a vulnerability assessment
• D. an external security audit
• E. a red team exercise

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?

• A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of explogtability, and impact to hosted dat
• B. Attempt to explogt via the proof-of-concept cod
• C. Consider remediation options.
• D. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web server
• E. Advise management of any ‘high’ or ‘critical’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
• F. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Interne
• G. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
• H. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted dat
• I. Bring the web servers down into“maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patc

Answer: A

Explanation: The first thing you should do is verify the reliability of the claims. From there you can assess the likelihood of the vulnerability affecting your systems. If it is determined that your systems are likely to be affected by the explogt, you need to determine what impact an attack will have on your hosted dat
A. Now that you know what the impact will be, you can test the explogt by using the proof-ofconcept code. That should help you determine your options for dealing with the threat
(remediation). Incorrect Answers:
B: While penetration testing your system is a good idea, it is unnecessary to hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. You know what the vulnerability is so you can test it yourself with the proof-of-concept code.
C: Security response should be proactive. Waiting for the threat to be verified by the software vendor will leave the company vulnerable if the vulnerability is real.
D: Bringing down the web servers would prevent the vulnerability but would also render the system useless. Furthermore, customers would expect a certain level of service and may even have a service level agreement in place with guarantees of uptime.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 375-376

NEW QUESTION 4
A security technician is incorporating the following requirements in an RFP for a new SIEM: New security notifications must be dynamically implemented by the SIEM engine
The SIEM must be able to identify traffic baseline anomalies
Anonymous attack data from all customers must augment attack detection and risk scoring
Based on the above requirements, which of the following should the SIEM support? (Choose two.)

• A. Autoscaling search capability
• B. Machine learning
• C. Multisensor deployment
• D. Big Data analytics
• E. Cloud-based management
• F. Centralized log aggregation

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 5
A security engineer on a large enterprise network needs to schedule maintenance within a fixed window of time. A total outage period of four hours is permitted for servers. Workstations can undergo maintenance from 8:00 pm to 6:00 am daily. Which of the following can specify parameters for the maintenance work? (Select TWO).

• A. Managed security service
• B. Memorandum of understanding
• C. Quality of service
• D. Network service provider
• E. Operating level agreement

Answer: BE

Explanation: B: A memorandum of understanding (MOU) documents conditions and applied terms for outsourcing partner organizations that must share data and information resources. It must be signed by a re presentative from each organization that has the legal authority to sign and are typically secured, as they are considered confidential.
E: An operating level agreement (O LA) defines the responsibilities of each partner's internal support group and what group and resources are used to meet the specified goal. It is used in conjunction with service level agreements (SLAs).
Incorrect Answers:
A: A managed security service (MSS) is a network security service that has been outsourced to a service provider, such as an Internet Service Provider (ISP). In the earlier days of the Internet, ISPs would sell customers a firewall appliance, as customer premises equipment (CPE), and for an additional fee would manage the customer-owned firewall over a dial-up connection.
C: Quality of service (QoS) is a mechanism that is designed to give priority to different applications, users, or data to provide a specific level of performance. It is often used in networks to prioritize certain types of network traffic.
D: A network service provider (NSP) provides bandwidth or network access via direct Internet backbone access to the Internet and usually access to its network access points (NAPs). They are sometimes referred to as backbone providers or internet providers.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 237, 362
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NEW QUESTION 6
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to
the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).

• A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
• B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
• C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
• D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
• E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six month

Answer: AC

Explanation: Running a file comparison analysis on the two images will determine whether files have been changed, as well as what files were changed.
Hashing can be used to meet the goals of integrity and non-repudiation. One of its advantages of hashing is its ability to verify that information has remained unchanged. If the hash values are the same, then the images are the same. If the hash values differ, there is a difference between the two
images.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Steganography is a type of data exfiltration. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a computer.
D: According to the scenario, the desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Asking the desktop support if any changes to the images were made would therefore be redundant.
E: The question requires the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image, not when the date/time stamp manipulation occurred.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 18, 134

NEW QUESTION 7
An information security officer is responsible for one secure network and one office network. Recent intelligence suggests there is an opportunity for attackers to gain access to the secure network due to similar login credentials across networks. To determine the users who should change their information, the information security officer uses a tool to scan a file with hashed values on both networks and receives the following data:

Which of the following tools was used to gather this information from the hashed values in the file?

• A. Vulnerability scanner
• B. Fuzzer
• C. MD5 generator
• D. Password cracker
• E. Protocol analyzer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
A company is in the process of outsourcing its customer relationship management system to a cloud provider. It will host the entire organization’s customer database. The database will be accessed by both the company’s users and its customers. The procurement department has asked what security activities must be performed for the deal to proceed. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate security activities to be performed as part of due diligence? (Select TWO).

• A. Physical penetration test of the datacenter to ensure there are appropriate controls.
• B. Penetration testing of the solution to ensure that the customer data is well protected.
• C. Security clauses are implemented into the contract such as the right to audit.
• D. Review of the organizations security policies, procedures and relevant hosting certifications.
• E. Code review of the solution to ensure that there are no back doors located in the softwar

Answer: CD

Explanation: Due diligence refers to an investigation of a business or person prior to signing a contract. Due diligence verifies information supplied by vendors with regards to processes, financials, experience, and performance. Due diligence should verify the data supplied in the RFP and concentrate on the following:
Company profile, strategy, mission, and reputation
Financial status, including reviews of audited financial statements
Customer references, preferably from companies that have outsourced similar processes Management qualifications, including criminal background checks
Process expertise, methodology, and effectiveness Quality initiatives and certifications
Technology, infrastructure stability, and applications Security and audit controls
Legal and regulatory compliance, including any outstanding complaints or litigation Use of subcontractors
Insurance
Disaster recovery and business continuity policies C and D form part of Security and audit controls. Incorrect Answers:
A: A Physical Penetration Test recognizes the security weaknesses and strengths of the physical security. It will, therefore, not form part of due diligence because due diligence verifies information supplied by vendors with regards to processes, financials, experience, and performance.
B: A penetration test is a software attack on a computer system that looks for security weaknesses. It will, therefore, not form part of due diligence because due diligence verifies information supplied by vendors with regards to processes, financials, experience, and performance.
E: A security code review is an examination of an application that is designed to identify and assess threats to an organization. It will, therefore, not form part of due diligence because due diligence verifies information supplied by vendors with regards to processes, financials, experience, and performance.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Due_diligence httHYPERLINK
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Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 169

NEW QUESTION 9
A cybersecurity analyst is hired to review the security the posture of a company. The cybersecurity analyst notice a very high network bandwidth consumption due to SYN floods from a small number of IP addresses. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take to support incident response?

• A. Increase the company's bandwidth.
• B. Apply ingress filters at the routers.
• C. Install a packet capturing tool.
• D. Block all SYN packet

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
A security engineer is responsible for monitoring company applications for known vulnerabilities. Which of the following is a way to stay current on explogts and information security news?

• A. Update company policies and procedures
• B. Subscribe to security mailing lists
• C. Implement security awareness training
• D. Ensure that the organization vulnerability management plan is up-to-date

Answer: B

Explanation: Subscribing to bug and vulnerability, security mailing lists is a good way of staying abreast and keeping up to date with the latest in those fields.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Updating company policies and procedures are not staying current on the topic since attacks are generated from outside sources and the best way to stay current on what is happening in that particular topic is to subscribe to a mailing list on the topic.
C: Security awareness training serves best as an operational control insofar as mitigating risk is concerned and not to stay current on the topic.
D: Making sure the company vulnerability plan is up to date is essential but will not keep you up to date on the topic as a subscription to a security mailing list.
References:
Conklin, Wm. Arthur, Gregory White and Dwayne Williams, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Certification Study Guide (Exam CAS-001), McGraw-Hill, Columbus, 2012, p. 139 Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 219

NEW QUESTION 11
A security administrator was doing a packet capture and noticed a system communicating with an unauthorized address within the 2001::/32 prefix. The network administrator confirms there is no IPv6 routing into or out of the network.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

• A. Investigate the network traffic and block UDP port 3544 at the firewall
• B. Remove the system from the network and disable IPv6 at the router
• C. Locate and remove the unauthorized 6to4 relay from the network
• D. Disable the switch port and block the 2001::/32 traffic at the firewall

Answer: A

Explanation: The 2001::/32 prefix is used for Teredo tunneling.
Teredo is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6-capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet but have no native connection to an IPv6 network. Unlike similar protocols, it can perform its function even from behind network address translation (NAT) devices such as home routers.
Teredo provides IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) connectivity by encapsulating IPv6 datagram packets within IPv4 User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packets. Teredo routes these datagrams on the IPv4 Internet and through NAT devices. Teredo nodes elsewhere on the IPv6 network (called Teredo relays) receive the packets, decapsulate them, and pass them on. The Teredo server listens on UDP port 3544.
Teredo clients are assigned an IPv6 address that starts with the Teredo prefix (2001::/32).
In this question, the BEST course of action would be to block UDP port 3544 at the firewall. This will block the unauthorized communication. You can then investigate the traffic within the network. Incorrect Answers:
B: Disabling IPv6 at the router will not help if the IPv6 traffic is encapsulated in IPv4 frames using Teredo. The question also states that there is no IPv6 routing into or out of the network.
C: 6to4 relays work in a similar way to Teredo. However, the addresses used by 6to4 relays start with 2002:: whereas Teredo addresses start with 2001. Therefore, a 6to4 relay is not being used in this question so this answer is incorrect.
D: This question is asking for the BEST solution. Disabling the switch port would take the system connected to it offline and blocking traffic destined for 2001::/32 at the firewall would prevent inbound Teredo communications (if you block the traffic on the inbound interface). However, blocking port UDP 3544 would suffice and investigating the traffic is always a better solution than just disconnecting a system from the network.
References: https://en.wikipedia.HYPERLINK
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NEW QUESTION 12
An engineer is assisting with the design of a new virtualized environment that will house critical company services and reduce the datacenter’s physical footprint. The company has expressed concern about the integrity of operating systems and wants to ensure a vulnerability explogted in one datacenter segment would not lead to the compromise of all others. Which of the following design objectives should the engineer complete to BEST mitigate the company’s concerns? (Choose two.)

• A. Deploy virtual desktop infrastructure with an OOB management network
• B. Employ the use of vTPM with boot attestation
• C. Leverage separate physical hardware for sensitive services and data
• D. Use a community CSP with independently managed security services
• E. Deploy to a private cloud with hosted hypervisors on each physical machine

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 13
A company monitors the performance of all web servers using WMI. A network administrator informs the security engineer that web servers hosting the company’s client-facing portal are running slowly today. After some investigation, the security engineer notices a large number of attempts at enumerating host information via SNMP from multiple IP addresses. Which of the following would be the BEST technique for the security engineer to employ in an attempt to prevent reconnaissance activity?

• A. Install a HIPS on the web servers
• B. Disable inbound traffic from offending sources
• C. Disable SNMP on the web servers
• D. Install anti-DDoS protection in the DMZ

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14
A security administrator is shown the following log excerpt from a Unix system:
2013 Oct 10 07:14:57 web14 sshd[1632]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37914 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:14:57 web14 sshd[1635]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37915 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:14:58 web14 sshd[1638]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37916 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:15:59 web14 sshd[1640]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37918 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:16:00 web14 sshd[1641]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37920 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:16:00 web14 sshd[1642]: Successful login for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37924 ssh2
Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation of what is occurring and the BEST immediate response? (Select TWO).

• A. An authorized administrator has logged into the root account remotely.
• B. The administrator should disable remote root logins.
• C. Isolate the system immediately and begin forensic analysis on the host.
• D. A remote attacker has compromised the root account using a buffer overflow in sshd.
• E. A remote attacker has guessed the root password using a dictionary attack.
• F. Use iptables to immediately DROP connections from the IP 198.51.100.23.
• G. A remote attacker has compromised the private key of the root account.
• H. Change the root password immediately to a password not found in a dictionar

Answer: CE

Explanation: The log shows six attempts to log in to a system. The first five attempts failed due to ‘failed password’. The sixth attempt was a successful login. Therefore, the MOST likely explanation of what is occurring is that a remote attacker has guessed the root password using a dictionary attack.
The BEST immediate response is to isolate the system immediately and begin forensic analysis on the host. You should isolate the system to prevent any further access to it and prevent it from doing any damage to other systems on the network. You should perform a forensic analysis on the system to determine what the attacker did on the system after gaining access.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is unlikely that an authorized administrator has logged into the root account remotely. It is unlikely that an authorized administrator would enter an incorrect password five times.
B: Disabling remote root logins is not the best course of action. The attacker has already gained access to the system so potentially the damage is already done.
D: The log does not suggest a buffer overflow attack; the failed passwords suggest a dictionary attack. F: Using iptables to immediately DROP connections from the IP 198.51.100.23 is not the best course of action. The attacker has already gained access to the system so potentially the damage is already done.
G: The log does not suggest a remote attacker has compromised the private key of the root account; the failed passwords suggest a dictionary attack.
H: Changing the root password is a good idea but it is not the best course of action. The attacker has already gained access to the system so potentially the damage is already done.

NEW QUESTION 15
Given the code snippet below:

Which of the following vulnerability types in the MOST concerning?

• A. Only short usernames are supported, which could result in brute forcing of credentials.
• B. Buffer overflow in the username parameter could lead to a memory corruption vulnerability.
• C. Hardcoded usernames with different code paths taken depend on which user is entered.
• D. Format string vulnerability is present for admin users but not for standard user

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
A pharmacy gives its clients online access to their records and the ability to review bills and make payments. A new SSL vulnerability on a special platform was discovered, allowing an attacker to capture the data between the end user and the web server providing these services. After invest the new vulnerability, it was determined that the web services providing are being impacted by this new threat. Which of the following data types a MOST likely at risk of exposure based on this new threat? (Select TWO)

• A. Cardholder data
• B. intellectual property
• C. Personal health information
• D. Employee records
• E. Corporate financial data

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 17
A company has received the contract to begin developing a new suite of software tools to replace an aging collaboration solution. The original collaboration solution has been in place for nine years, contains over a million lines of code, and took over two years to develop originally. The SDLC has been broken up into eight primary stages, with each stage requiring an in-depth risk analysis before moving on to the next phase. Which of the following software development methods is MOST applicable?

• A. Spiral model
• B. Incremental model
• C. Waterfall model
• D. Agile model

Answer: C

Explanation: The waterfall model is a sequential software development processes, in which progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards through identified phases.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The spiral model is a risk-driven process model generator for software projects. Based on the unique risk patterns of a given project, the spiral model guides a team to adopt elements of one or more process models, such as incremental, waterfall, or evolutionary prototyping.
B: The incremental model is used to develop a system through repeated cycles (iterative) and in smaller portions at a time (incremental), allowing software developers to take advantage of what was learned during development of earlier parts or versions of the system. Learning comes from both the development and use of the system, where possible key steps in the process start with a simple implementation of a subset of the software requirements and iteratively enhance the evolving versions until the full system is implemented. At each iteration, design modifications are made and new functional capabilities are added.
D: In the agile software development model, teams of programmers and business experts work closely together, using an iterative approach.
References: https://en.wikipeHYPERLINK
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BOOK p. 371

NEW QUESTION 18
The board of a financial services company has requested that the senior security analyst acts as a cybersecurity advisor in order to comply with recent federal legislation. The analyst is required to give a report on current cybersecurity and threat trends in the financial services industry at the next board meeting. Which of the following would be the BEST methods to prepare this report? (Choose two.)

• A. Review the CVE database for critical explogts over the past year
• B. Use social media to contact industry analysts
• C. Use intelligence gathered from the Internet relay chat channels
• D. Request information from security vendors and government agencies
• E. Perform a penetration test of the competitor’s network and share the results with the board

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 19
Company A has noticed abnormal behavior targeting their SQL server on the network from a rogue IP
address. The company uses the following internal IP address ranges: 192.10.1.0/24 for the corporate site and 192.10.2.0/24 for the remote site. The Telco router interface uses the 192.10.5.0/30 IP range.
Instructions: Click on the simulation button to refer to the Network Diagram for Company A. Click on Router 1, Router 2, and the Firewall to evaluate and configure each device.
Task 1: Display and examine the logs and status of Router 1, Router 2, and Firewall interfaces.
Task 2: Reconfigure the appropriate devices to prevent the attacks from continuing to target the SQL server and other servers on the corporate network.

• A. Check the answer belowWe have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:
• B. Check the answer belowWe have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is reviewing the results of a gap analysis with an outside cybersecurity consultant. The gap analysis reviewed all procedural and technical controls and found the following:
High-impact controls implemented: 6 out of 10 Medium-impact controls implemented: 409 out of 472 Low-impact controls implemented: 97 out of 1000
The report includes a cost-benefit analysis for each control gap. The analysis yielded the following information:
Average high-impact control implementation cost: $15,000; Probable ALE for each high-impact control gap: $95,000
Average medium-impact control implementation cost: $6,250; Probable ALE for each mediumimpact control gap: $11,000
Due to the technical construction and configuration of the corporate enterprise, slightly more than 50% of the medium-impact controls will take two years to fully implement. Which of the following conclusions could the CISO draw from the analysis?

• A. Too much emphasis has been placed on eliminating low-risk vulnerabilities in the past
• B. The enterprise security team has focused exclusively on mitigating high-level risks
• C. Because of the significant ALE for each high-risk vulnerability, efforts should be focused on those controls
• D. The cybersecurity team has balanced residual risk for both high and medium controls

Answer: C