Our pass rate is high to 98.9% and the similarity percentage between our IIA-CIA-Part2 study guide and real exam is 90% based on our seven-year educating experience. Do you want achievements in the IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 exam in just one try? I am currently studying for the IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 exam. Latest IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Test exam practice questions and answers, Try IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Brain Dumps First.
Q16. An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?
A. Testing controls where operating procedures vary.
B. Testing controls in decentralized offices.
C. Testing controls in high risk areas.
D. Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.
Answer: B
Q17. According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?
1.
The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.
2.
The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.
3.
The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.
4.
The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
Answer: D
Q18. Audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report in order to ensure that:
A. The client's objectives are met.
B. Senior management supports the report's conclusions.
C. Report style and grammar are appropriate.
D. Report findings are substantiated.
Answer: D
Q19. During an engagement the internal auditors reported that the organization was paying suppliers without receiving the merchandise. Management responded that it would immediately establish the use of receiving reports. As part of the follow-up activity, which of the following procedures would be the most appropriate in determining that management action was implemented?
A. Ask management if the new policy related to the receiving reports is in place.
B. Select a sample of receiving reports and determine if payments were made.
C. Interview warehouse employees to ascertain adherence to new policy.
D. Select a sample of payments and determine if a receiving report exists.
Answer: D
Q20. When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?
A. The need and availability of automated support.
B. The potential impact of key risks.
C. The expected outcomes and deliverables.
D. The operational and geographic boundaries.
Answer: B
Q21. Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?
1.
Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.
2.
Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.
3.
Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.
4.
Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
Q22. A chief audit executive (CAE) suspects that several employees have used desktop computers for personal gain. In conducting an investigation, the primary reason that the CAE would choose to engage a forensic information systems auditor rather than using the organization's information systems auditor is that a forensic information systems auditor would possess:
A. Knowledge of the computing system that would enable a more comprehensive assessment of the computer use and abuse.
B. Knowledge of what constitutes evidence acceptable in a court of law.
C. Superior analytical skills that would facilitate the identification of computer abuse.
D. Superior documentation and organization skills that would facilitate in the presentation of findings to senior management and the board.
Answer: B
Q23. According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?
A. Sufficiency.
B. Appropriateness.
C. Effective deployment.
D. Cost effectiveness.
Answer: D
Q24. Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?
A. It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.
B. If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing
procedures during the planning phase.
C. The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be
kept confidential until the audit report is final.
D. Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit
client's business objectives.
Answer: D
Q25. When internal auditors provide consulting services, the scope of the engagement is primarily determined by:
A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity's charter.
Answer: C
Q26. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?
A. A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.
B. Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.
C. The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.
D. During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.
Answer: C
Q27. After partially completing an internal control review of the accounts payable department, an auditor suspects that some type of fraud has occurred. To ascertain whether the fraud is present, the best sampling approach would be to usE.
A. Simple random sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by the department during the past year.
B. Probability-proportional-to-size sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by the department during the past year.
C. Discovery sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by the department during the past year.
D. Judgmental sampling to select a sample of vouchers processed by clerks who were identified by the department manager as acting suspiciously.
Answer: C
Q28. Which of the following is an advantage of control self-assessment (CSA) over conventional auditing techniques?
A. CSA evaluates control activities and human resource practices.
B. CSA provides assurance about whether business objectives will be met.
C. CSA facilitates obtaining input from subject-matter experts efficiently.
D. CSA provides assurance that action will be taken to improve deficiencies.
Answer: C
Q29. Which of the following will be an appropriate course of action when an auditor disagrees with a client about a well-documented audit finding?
A. Include both the audit finding and the client's position in the audit report.
B. Defer reporting the item and plan to perform more detailed work during the next audit.
C. Change the finding so that it is acceptable to the client.
D. Address the issue with senior management and the board for resolution prior to issuing the final report.
Answer: A
Q30. A bank is developing an integrated customer information system. The type of audit involvement that would most likely help avoid implementation of a system that does not cover all types of accounts would be:
A. A design review.
B. An application control review.
C. A source code review.
D. An access control review.
Answer: A