How Many Questions Of SY0-701 Question

NEW QUESTION 1

A contractor overhears a customer recite their credit card number during a confidential phone call. The credit card Information is later used for a fraudulent transaction. Which of the following social engineering techniques describes this scenario?

• A. Shoulder surfing
• B. Watering hole
• C. Vishing
• D. Tailgating

Answer: A

Explanation:
Shoulder surfing is a social engineering technique that involves looking over someone’s shoulder to see what they are typing, writing, or viewing on their screen. It can be used to steal passwords, PINs, credit card numbers, or other sensitive information. In this scenario, the contractor used shoulder surfing to overhear the customer’s credit card number during a phone call.

NEW QUESTION 2

An organization has been experiencing outages during holiday sales and needs to ensure availability of its point-of-sales systems. The IT administrator has been asked to improve both server-data fault tolerance and site availability under high consumer load. Which of the following are the best options to accomplish this objective? (Select two.)

• A. Load balancing
• B. Incremental backups
• C. UPS
• D. RAID
• E. Dual power supply
• F. VLAN

Answer: AD

Explanation:
Load balancing and RAID are the best options to accomplish the objective of improving both server-data fault tolerance and site availability under high consumer load. Load balancing is a method of distributing network traffic across multiple servers to optimize performance, reliability, and scalability. Load balancing can help improve site availability by preventing server overload, ensuring high uptime, and providing redundancy and failover. RAID stands for redundant array of independent disks, which is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit to improve data storage performance, reliability, and capacity. RAID can help improve server-data fault tolerance by providing data redundancy, backup, and recovery.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.nginx.com/resources/glossary/load-balancing/ https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/raid

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following isa risk that is specifically associated with hesting applications iin the public cloud?

• A. Unsecured root accounts
• B. Zero day
• C. Shared tenancy
• D. Insider threat

Answer: C

Explanation:
When hosting applications in the public cloud, there is a risk of shared tenancy, meaning that multiple organizations are sharing the same infrastructure. This can potentially allow one tenant to access another tenant's data, creating a security risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

NEW QUESTION 4

Remote workers in an organization use company-provided laptops with locally installed applications and locally stored data Users can store data on a remote server using an encrypted connection. The organization discovered data stored on a laptop had been made available to the public Which of the following security solutions would mitigate the risk of future data disclosures?

• A. FDE
• B. TPM
• C. HIDS
• D. VPN

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on these definitions, the best security solution to mitigate the risk of future data disclosures from a laptop would be FDE123. FDE would prevent unauthorized access to the data stored on the laptop even if it is stolen or lost. FDE can also use TPM to store the encryption key and ensure that only trusted software can decrypt the data3. HIDS and VPN are not directly related to data encryption, but they can provide additional security benefits by detecting intrusions and protecting network traffic respectively.

NEW QUESTION 5

After multiple on-premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased The analysts are spending a long time trying to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats. Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?

• A. CASB
• B. VPC
• C. SWG
• D. CMS

Answer: D

Explanation:
CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments.

NEW QUESTION 6

A company wants to deploy decoy systems alongside production systems in order to entice threat actors and to learn more about attackers. Which of the follow r 3 best describes these systems?

• A. DNS sinkholes
• B. Honey pots
• C. Virtual machines
• D. Neural networks

Answer: B

Explanation:
Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution.

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following should a Chief Information Security Officer consider using to take advantage of industry standard guidelines?

• A. SSAE SOC 2
• B. GDPR
• C. PCI DSS
• D. NIST CSF

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework) is a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks. It is based on existing standards, guidelines, and practices that are widely recognized and applicable across different sectors and organizations. It provides a common language and framework for understanding, communicating, and managing cybersecurity risks. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 7, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and
Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.4: Explain the techniques used in security assessments 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 3 https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework

NEW QUESTION 8

A security analyst discovers that a company's username and password database were posted on an internet forum. The usernames and passwords are stored in plaintext. Which of the following would mitigate the damage done by this type of data exfiltration in the future?

• A. Create DLP controls that prevent documents from leaving the network.
• B. Implement salting and hashing.
• C. Configure the web content filter to block access to the forum.
• D. Increase password complexity requirements.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.
Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.

NEW QUESTION 9

A security investigation revealed mat malicious software was installed on a server using a server administrator credentials. During the investigation the server administrator explained that Telnet was regularly used to log in. Which of the blowing most likely occurred?

• A. A spraying attack was used to determine which credentials to use
• B. A packet capture tool was used to steal the password
• C. A remote-access Trojan was used to install the malware
• D. A directory attack was used to log in as the server administrator

Answer: B

Explanation:
Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext over the network. This means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can read the data, including the username and password of the server administrator. A packet capture tool is a software or hardware device that can capture and analyze network packets. An attacker can use a packet capture tool to steal the password and use it to install malicious software on the server. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-security

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following involves the inclusion of code in the main codebase as soon as it is written?

• A. Continuous monitoring
• B. Continuous deployment
• C. Continuous Validation
• D. Continuous integration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Detailed
Continuous Integration (CI) is a practice where developers integrate code into a shared repository frequently, preferably several times a day. Each integration is verified by an automated build and automated tests. CI allows for the detection of errors early in the development cycle, thereby reducing overall development costs.

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following conditions impacts data sovereignty?

• A. Rights management
• B. Criminal investigations
• C. Healthcare data
• D. International operations

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data sovereignty refers to the legal concept that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the country in which it is located. International operations can impact data sovereignty as companies operating in multiple countries may need to comply with different laws and regulations. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 12

A user reports trouble using a corporate laptop. The laptop freezes and responds slowly when writing documents and the mouse pointer occasional disappears.
The task list shows the following results

Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

• A. RAT
• B. PUP
• C. Spyware
• D. Keylogger

Answer: C

Explanation:
Spyware is malicious software that can cause a computer to slow down or freeze. It can also cause the mouse pointer to disappear. The task list shows an application named "spyware.exe" running, indicating that spyware is likely the issue. References:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 6.0: Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 125-126

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following security controls s sed to isolate a section of the network and its externally available resources from the internal corporate network in order to reduce the number of
possible attacks?

• A. Faraday cages
• B. Air gap
• C. Vaulting
• D. Proximity readers

Answer: B

Explanation:
An air gap is a security measure that physically isolates a section of the network from any other network or device that could compromise its security. An air gap prevents any unauthorized access, data leakage, or malware infection through network connections, such as Ethernet cables, wireless signals, or Bluetooth devices. An air gap can be used to protect sensitive or critical systems and data from external threats, such as hackers, spies, or cyberattacks.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following automation use cases would best enhance the security posture Of an organi-zation by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company Or change job roles inter-nally?

• A. Provisioning resources
• B. Disabling access
• C. APIs
• D. Escalating permission requests

Answer: B

Explanation:
Disabling access is an automation use case that can enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company or change job roles internally. It can prevent unauthorized access and data leakage by revoking or modifying the access rights of employees based on their current status and role.

NEW QUESTION 15

A backup operator wants to perform a backup to enhance the RTO and RPO in a highly time- and
storage-efficient way that has no impact on production systems. Which of the following backup types should the operator use?

• A. Tape
• B. Full
• C. Image
• D. Snapshot

Answer: D

Explanation:
A snapshot backup is a type of backup that captures the state of a system at a point in time. It is highly time- and storage-efficient because it only records the changes made to the system since the last backup. It also has no impact on production systems because it does not require them to be offline or paused during the backup process. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-snapshot-backup

NEW QUESTION 16
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