Top Tips Of Regenerate SY0-701 Brain Dumps

NEW QUESTION 1

A company reduced the area utilized in its datacenter by creating virtual networking through automation and by creating provisioning routes and rules through scripting. Which of the following does this example describe?

• A. laC
• B. MSSP
• C. Containers
• D. SaaS

Answer: A

Explanation:
laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) allows the creation of virtual networks, automation, and scripting to reduce the area utilized in a datacenter. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

NEW QUESTION 2

A security analyst is investigating network issues between a workstation and a company server. The workstation and server occasionally experience service disruptions, and employees are forced to
reconnect to the server. In addition, some reports indicate sensitive information is being leaked from the server to the public.
The workstation IP address is 192.168.1.103, and the server IP address is 192.168.1.101. The analyst runs arp -a On a separate workstation and obtains the following results:

Which of the following is most likely occurring?

• A. Evil twin attack
• B. Domain hijacking attack
• C. On-path attack
• D. MAC flooding attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
An on-path attack is a type of attack where an attacker places themselves between two devices (such as a workstation and a server) and intercepts or modifies the communications between them. An on-path attacker can collect sensitive information, impersonate either device, or disrupt the service. In this scenario, the attacker is likely using an on-path attack to capture and alter the network traffic between the workstation and the server, causing service disruptions and data leakage.

NEW QUESTION 3

A network engineer is troubleshooting wireless network connectivity issues that were reported by users The issues are occurring only in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot. Users are intermittently experiencing slow speeds when accessing websites and are unable to connect to network drives. The issues appear to increase when laptop users return to their desks after using their devices in other areas of the building There have also been reports of users being required to enter their credentials on web pages in order to gain access to them Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

• A. An external access point is engaging in an evil-Twin attack
• B. The signal on the WAP needs to be increased in that section of the building
• C. The certificates have expired on the devices and need to be reinstalled
• D. The users in that section of the building are on a VLAN that is being blocked by the firewall

Answer: A

Explanation:
An evil-Twin attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. It is the most likely cause of the issue that users are experiencing slow speeds, unable to connect to network drives, and required to enter their credentials on web pages when working in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot, where an external access point could be placed nearby.

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following describes business units that purchase and implement scripting software without approval from an organization's technology Support staff?

• A. Shadow IT
• B. Hacktivist
• C. Insider threat
• D. script kiddie

Answer: A

Explanation:
shadow IT is the use of IT-related hardware or software by a department or individual without the knowledge or approval of the IT or security group within the organization12. Shadow IT can encompass cloud services, software, and hardware. The main area of concern today is the rapid adoption of cloud-based service1s.
According to one source3, shadow IT helps you know and identify which apps are being used and what your risk level is. 80% of employees use non-sanctioned apps that no one has reviewed, and may not be compliant with your security and compliance policies.

NEW QUESTION 5

The findings in a consultant's report indicate the most critical risk to the security posture from an incident response perspective is a lack of workstation and server investigation capabilities. Which of the following should be implemented to remediate this risk?

• A. HIDS
• B. FDE
• C. NGFW
• D. EDR

Answer: D

Explanation:
EDR solutions are designed to detect and respond to malicious activity on workstations and servers, and they provide a detailed analysis of the incident, allowing organizations to quickly remediate the threat. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, EDR solutions can be used to detect malicious activity on endpoints, investigate the incident, and contain the threat. EDR solutions can also provide real-time monitoring and alerting for potential security events, as well as detailed forensic analysis for security incidents. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations also implement a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) to alert them to malicious activity on their workstations and servers.

NEW QUESTION 6

An employee used a corporate mobile device during a vacation Multiple contacts were modified in the device vacation Which of the following method did attacker to insert the contacts without having 'Physical access to device?

• A. Jamming
• B. BluJacking
• C. Disassoaatm
• D. Evil twin

Answer: B

Explanation:
bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers. Bluejacking does not involve device hijacking, despite what the
name implies. In this context, a human might say that the best answer to the question is B. BluJacking, because it is a method that can insert contacts without having physical access to the device.

NEW QUESTION 7

A company recently decided to allow its employees to use their personally owned devices for tasks like checking email and messaging via mobile applications. The company would like to use MDM, but employees are concerned about the loss of personal data. Which of the following should the IT department implement to BEST protect the company against company data loss while still addressing the employees’ concerns?

• A. Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen.
• B. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone.
• C. Configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen.
• D. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company's applications.

Answer: C

Explanation:
MDM software is a type of remote asset-management software that runs from a central server. It is used by businesses to optimize the functionality and security of their mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets. It can monitor and regulate both corporate-owned and personally owned devices to the organization’s policies.
FDE stands for full disk encryption, which is a method of encrypting all data on a device’s storage. FDE can protect data from unauthorized access in case the device is lost or stolen.
If a company decides to allow its employees to use their personally owned devices for work tasks, it should configure MDM software to enforce FDE on those devices. This way, the company can protect its data from being exposed if the device falls into the wrong hands.
However, employees may be concerned about the loss of personal data if the company also enables the remote-wiping option in the MDM software. Remote wiping is a feature that allows the company to erase all data on a device remotely in case of theft or loss. Remote wiping can also affect personal data on the device, which may not be acceptable to employees.
Therefore, a possible compromise is to configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen. This means that the device will be encrypted, but it will not require a password or PIN to unlock it. This way, employees can access their personal data easily, while the company can still protect its data with encryption.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen. This option may address the company’s concern about data loss, but it may not address the employees’ concern about personal data loss. Remote wiping can erase both work and personal data on the device, which may not be desirable for employees.
B. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone. This option may enhance the security of the device, but it may not address the company’s concern about data loss. PINs can be guessed or bypassed by attackers, and they do not protect data if the device is physically accessed.
D. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company’s applications. This option may address the company’s concern about data loss, but it may not address the employees’ concern about personal data loss. A factory reset will erase all data on the device, including personal data, which may not be acceptable to employees.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.4 Given a scenario, implement secure systems design:
“MDM software is a type of remote asset-management software that runs from a central server1. It is used by businesses to optimize the functionality and security of their mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets2.”
“FDE stands for full disk encryption, which is a method of encrypting all data on a device’s storage3.” References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.makeuseof.com/what-is-mobile-device-management-mdm-software/

NEW QUESTION 8

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating (he dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system tor the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls mat apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate Hie environment for this new ERP system?

• A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
• B. CIS Critical Security Controls
• C. NIST Risk Management Framevtoik
• D. ISO 27002

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

NEW QUESTION 9

While performing a threat-hunting exercise, a security analyst sees some unusual behavior occurring in an application when a user changes the display name. The security analyst decides to perform a static code analysis and receives the following pseudocode:

Which of the following attack types best describes the root cause of the unusual behavior?

• A. Server-side request forgery
• B. Improper error handling
• C. Buffer overflow
• D. SQL injection

Answer: D

Explanation:
SQL injection is one of the most common web hacking techniques. SQL injection is the placement of malicious code in SQL statements, via web page input12. A SQL injection attack consists of insertion or “injection” of a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application. A successful SQL injection exploit can read sensitive data from the database, modify database data (Insert/Update/Delete), execute administration operations on the database (such as shutdown the DBMS), recover the content of a given file present on the DBMS file system and in some cases issue commands to the operating system3.
According to the pseudocode given in the question, the application takes a user input for display name and concatenates it with a SQL query to update the user’s profile. This is a vulnerable practice that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL code into the query and execute it on the database. For example, an attacker could enter something like this as their display name:
John'; DROP TABLE users; -
This would result in the following SQL query being executed:
UPDATE profile SET displayname = 'John'; DROP TABLE users; --' WHERE userid = 1;
The semicolon (;) terminates the original update statement and starts a new one that drops the users table. The double dash (–) comments out the rest of the query. This would cause a catastrophic loss of data for the application.

NEW QUESTION 10

An attack has occurred against a company.
INSTRUCTIONS
You have been tasked to do the following:
Identify the type of attack that is occurring on the network by clicking on the attacker’s tablet and reviewing the output. (Answer Area 1).
Identify which compensating controls should be implemented on the assets, in order to reduce the effectiveness of future attacks by dragging them to the correct server.
(Answer area 2) All objects will be used, but not all placeholders may be filled. Objects may only be used once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.


Select and Place:

• A. Yes
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11

An organization wants to secure a LAN/WLAN so users can authenticate and transport data securely. The solution needs to prevent on-path attacks and evil twin attacks. Which of the following will best meet the organization's need?

• A. MFA
• B. 802.1X
• C. WPA2
• D. TACACS

Answer: B

Explanation:
* 802.1 X is a standard for network access control that provides authentication and encryption for devices that connect to a LAN/WLAN. 802.1X uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to exchange authentication messages between a supplicant (the device requesting access), an authenticator (the device granting access), and an authentication server (the device verifying credentials). 802.1X can prevent on-path attacks and evil twin attacks by requiring users to provide valid credentials before accessing the network and encrypting the data transmitted over the network.
On-path attacks are attacks that involve intercepting or modifying network traffic between two endpoints. An on-path attacker can eavesdrop on sensitive information, alter or inject malicious data, or redirect traffic to malicious destinations. On-path attacks are frequently perpetrated over WiFi network1s.
Evil twin attacks are attacks that involve setting up a fake WiFi access point that mimics a legitimate one. An evil twin attacker can trick users into connecting to the fake network and then monitor or manipulate their online activity. Evil twin attacks are more common on public WiFi networks that are unsecured and leave personal data vulnerable23.

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security by including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments?

• A. ISO 27701
• B. The Center for Internet Security
• C. SSAE SOC 2
• D. NIST Risk Management Framework

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Center for Internet Security (CIS) uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security, including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments. References:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.1: Compare and contrast different types of security concepts.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 15-16

NEW QUESTION 13

An organization routes all of its traffic through a VPN Most users are remote and connect into a corporate data center that houses confidential information There is a firewall at the internet border, followed by a DLP appliance, the VPN server and the data center itself Which of the following is the weakest design element?

• A. The DLP appliance should be integrated into a NGFW.
• B. Split-tunnel connections can negatively impact the DLP appliance's performance.
• C. Encrypted VPN traffic will not be inspected when entering or leaving the network.
• D. Adding two hops in the VPN tunnel may slow down remote connections

Answer: C

Explanation:
VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption

NEW QUESTION 14

Multiple beaconing activities to a malicious domain have been observed. The malicious domain is hosting malware from various endpoints on the network. Which of the following technologies would be best to correlate the activities between the different endpoints?

• A. Firewall
• B. SIEM
• C. IPS
• D. Protocol analyzer

Answer: B

Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a technology that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from multiple sources, such as firewall logs, IDS/IPS alerts, network devices, applications, and endpoints. SIEM provides real-time monitoring and alerting of security events, as well as historical analysis and reporting for compliance and forensic purposes.
A SIEM technology would be best to correlate the activities between the different endpoints that are beaconing to a malicious domain. A SIEM can detect the malicious domain by comparing it with threat intelligence feeds or known indicators of compromise (IOCs). A SIEM can also identify the endpoints that are communicating with the malicious domain by analyzing the firewall logs and other network traffic data. A SIEM can alert the security team of the potential compromise and provide them with relevant information for investigation and remediation.

NEW QUESTION 15

A company's public-facing website, https://www.organization.com, has an IP address of 166.18.75.6. However, over the past hour the SOC has received reports of the site's homepage displaying incorrect information. A quick nslookup search shows hitps://;www.organization.com is pointing to 151.191.122.115. Which of the following is occurring?

• A. DoS attack
• B. ARP poisoning
• C. DNS spoofing
• D. NXDOMAIN attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
The issue is DNS spoofing, where the DNS resolution has been compromised and is pointing to a malicious IP address. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7

NEW QUESTION 16
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