The particular Cisco experts have the possibility to get a specialist in IT area should also get to the top of ability and achievement, so they must take part in diverse Cisco accreditation tests. Cisco 400-101 called CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0) will be stepping-stone to check the actual candidates information and capacity in a appropriate area at work. Pass4sure Cisco 400-101 on the internet practice tests can promise that you are able to handle those highly trained and competent functions. Our 400-101 practice examination offers the actual questions, guaranteeing a person pass the actual 400-101 examination along with top marks.
2021 Apr 400-101 test preparation
Q431. In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?
A. Listening
B. learning
C. forwarding
D. blocking
E. disabled
Answer: A
Explanation:
STP switch port states:
. Blocking – A port that would cause a switching loop if it were active. No user data is sent or received over a blocking port, but it may go into forwarding mode if the other links in use fail and the spanning tree algorithm determines the port may transition to the forwarding state. BPDU data is still received in blocking state. Prevents the use of looped paths.
. Listening – The switch processes BPDUs and awaits possible new information that would cause it to return to the blocking state. It does not populate the MAC address table and it does not forward frames. In this state the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s) are elected.
. Learning – While the port does not yet forward frames it does learn source addresses from frames received and adds them to the filtering database (switching database). It populates the MAC Address table, but does not forward frames.
. Forwarding – A port receiving and sending data, normal operation. STP still monitors incoming BPDUs that would indicate it should return to the blocking state to prevent a loop.
. Disabled – Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanning_Tree_Protocol
Q432. Which problem can result when private AS numbers are included in advertisements that are sent to the global Internet BGP table?
A. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always discarded on the Internet.
B. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always tagged as invalid on the Internet.
C. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers lack uniqueness, which can lead to a loss of connectivity.
D. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are sometimes tagged as invalid on the Internet.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Private AS numbers are not meant to be used for global Internet BGP routing, as they are assigned locally and can be used by any organization. They are meant to enable BGP within a enterprise or VPN, but since these numbers can be used by any organization they are not unique and could cause connectivity loss if leaked to the Internet.
Q433. Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.)
A. Enable NAT-PT globally.
B. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation.
C. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation.
D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address.
E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address.
F. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The detailed steps on configuring NAY-PT is found at the reference link below:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/i p6-nat_trnsln.html
Q434. Which two statements are true about AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AAA can use RADIUS, TACACS+, or Windows AD to authenticate users.
B. If RADIUS is the only method configured in AAA, and the server becomes unreachable,
the user will be able to log in to the router using a local username and password.
C. If the local keyword is not included and the AAA server does not respond, then authorization will never be possible and the connection will fail.
D. AAA can be used to authenticate the enable password with a AAA server.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
AAA can be used to authenticate user login and the enable passwords.
Example 1: Same Exec Authentication Methods for All Users
Once authenticated with:
aaa authentication login default group radius local
All users who want to log in to the access server have to be authorized using Radius (first method) or local database (second method).
We configure:
aaa authorization exec default group radius local
Note. On the AAA server, Service-Type=1 (login) must be selected.
Note. With this example, if the local keyword is not included and the AAA server does not respond, then authorization will never be possible and the connection will fail.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/terminal-access-controller-access-control-system-tacacs-/10384-security.html
Q435. Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option?
A. $_cli_result
B. $_result
C. $_string_result
D. $_exit_status
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CLI event detector screens CLI commands for a regular expression match. When a match is found, an event is published. The match logic is performed on the fully expanded CLI command after the command is successfully parsed and before it is executed. The CLI event detector supports three publish modes:
. Synchronous publishing of CLI events--The CLI command is not executed until the EEM policy exits, and the EEM policy can control whether the command is executed. The read/write variable, _exit_status, allows you to set the exit status at policy exit for policies triggered from synchronous events. If _exit_status is 0, the command is skipped, if _exit_status is 1, the command is run.
. Asynchronous publishing of CLI events--The CLI event is published, and then the CLI command is executed.
. Asynchronous publishing of CLI events with command skipping--The CLI event is published, but the CLI command is not executed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/command/eem-cr-
book/eem-cr-e1.html
Renovate 400-101 exam cost:
Q436. Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
.Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
. The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS -VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals - Luc De Ghein
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/asynchronous-transfer-mode-atm/ip-to-atm-class-of-service/4800-cefreq.html
Q437. Which two statements about redistribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the metric is set to 1 unless the metric is defined.
B. When EIGRP routes on a CE are redistributed through a PE into BGP, the Cost Community POI is set automatically.
C. When OSPF traffic is redistributed into BGP, internal and external routes are redistributed.
D. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, eBGP and iBGP routes are advertised.
E. iBGP routes automatically redistribute into the IGP if the routes are in the routing table.
F. When EIGRP traffic is redistributed into BGP, a default metric is required.
Answer: A,B
Q438. DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPF route-type identifier on the left to its description on the right.
Answer:
Q439. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on UDP port 49152.
B. It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interface FastEthernet0/0.
C. It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data.
D. It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernet0/0.
E. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on TCP port 49152.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The “ip flow-export destination 209.165.200.227 49152” command specifies that the data export destination server is 209.165.200.227 using UDP port 49152.
The “ip route-cache flow” command under the fastethernet 0/0 interface enable netflow switching on that interface.
Q440. Refer to the exhibit.
While configuring AAA with a local database, users can log in via Telnet, but receive the message "error in authentication" when they try to go into enable mode. Which action can solve this problem?
A. Configure authorization to allow the enable command.
B. Use aaa authentication login default enable to allow authentication when using the enable command.
C. Verify whether an enable password has been configured.
D. Use aaa authentication enable default enable to allow authentication when using the enable command.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a different enable password is configured, it will override the privilege level 15 of that user and force the existing password to be used for enable access.