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2021 Apr 400-101 pdf exam
Q291. In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability?
A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43
Answer: C
Q292. Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network?
(Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
Answer: A,B,C
Q293. A floating static route appears in the routing table of an interface even when the interface is unusable.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Remove the permanent option from the static route.
B. Correct the administrative distance.
C. Configure the floating static route to point to another route in the routing table.
D. Correct the DHCP-provided route on the DHCP server.
Answer: A
Q294. Refer to the exhibit.
Which device role could have generated this debug output?
A. an NHS only
B. an NHC only
C. an NHS or an NHC
D. a DMVPN hub router
Answer: B
Explanation:
NHRP works off a server/client relationship, where the NHRP clients (let’s call them next hop clients/NHCs) register with their next hop server (NHS), it’s the responsibility of the NHS to track all of its NHCs this is done with registration request and reply packets. Here we see a registration request, which can only be sent by an NHC.
Q295. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. R1 routes this pseudowire over MPLS TE tunnel 1 with transport label 20.
B. The default route 0.0.0.0/0 is available in the IPv4 routing table.
C. R1 is using an MPLS TE tunnel for this pseudowire, because the IP path is not available.
D. R1 has preferred-path configured for the pseudowire.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Verifying the Configuration: Example In the following example, the show mpls l2transport vc command shows the following information (in bold) about the VCs:
. VC 101 has been assigned a preferred path called Tunnel1. The default path is disabled because the preferred path specified that the default path should not be used if the preferred path fails.
. VC 150 has been assigned an IP address of a loopback address on PE2. The default path can be used if the preferred path fails.
Router# show mpls l2transport vc detail
Local interface. Gi0/0/0.1 up, line protocol up, Eth VLAN 222 up
Destination address: 10.16.16.16, VC ID. 101, VC status: up
Preferred path: Tunnel1, active
Default path: disabled
Tunnel label: 3, next hop point2point
Output interfacE. Tu1, imposed label stack {17 16}
Create timE. 00:27:31, last status change timE. 00:27:31
Signaling protocol: LDP, peer 10.16.16.16:0 up
MPLS VC labels: local 25, remote 16
Group ID. local 0, remote 6
MTU: local 1500, remote 1500
Remote interface description:
Sequencing: receive disabled, send disabled
VC statistics:
packet totals: receive 10, send 10
byte totals: receive 1260, send 1300
packet drops: receive 0, send 0
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srtunsel.html#wp10 57815
Latest 400-101 exam answers:
Q296. Which technology can be used to secure the core of an STP domain?
A. UplinkFast
B. BPDU guard
C. BPDU filter
D. root guard
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since STP does not implement any authentication or encryption to protect the exchange of BPDUs, it is vulnerable to unauthorized participation and attacks. Cisco IOS offers the STP Root Guard feature to enforce the placement of the root bridge and secure the core of the STP domain.
STP root guard forces a port to become a designated port so that no switch on the other end of the link can become a root switch. If a port configured for root guard receives a superior BPDU, the port it is received on is blocked. In this way, STP root guard blocks other devices from trying to become the root bridge.
STP root guard should be enabled on all ports that will never connect to a root bridge, for example, all end user ports. This ensures that a root bridge will never be negotiated on those ports.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/Baseline_Security/secur ebasebook/sec_chap7.html
Q297. Refer to the exhibit.
If you change the Spanning Tree Protocol from pvst to rapid-pvst, what is the effect on the interface Fa0/1 port state?
A. It transitions to the listening state, and then the forwarding state.
B. It transitions to the learning state and then the forwarding state.
C. It transitions to the blocking state, then the learning state, and then the forwarding state.
D. It transitions to the blocking state and then the forwarding state.
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the port will transition to the blocking state, immediately upon the change, then it will transition to the new RSTP states of learning and forwarding.
Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
STP (802.1D) Port State
RSTP (802.1w) Port State
Is Port Included in Active Topology?
Is Port Learning MAC Addresses?
Disabled
Discarding
No
No
Blocking
Discarding
No
No
Listening
Discarding
Yes
No
Learning
Learning
Yes
Yes
Forwarding
Forwarding
Yes
Yes
Q298. Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Configure the activation-character command.
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port.
C. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15.
D. Configure an ACL.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The activation-character command defines a session activation character. Entering this character at a vacant terminal begins a terminal session. The default activation character is the Return key
To secure the console port, you should change this character to a different one as most people simply hit the enter key when trying to access the console.
Q299. Which three statements about implementing an application layer gateway in a network are true? (Choose three.)
A. It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of whether NAT is being used.
B. It maintains granular security over application-specific data.
C. It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts.
D. Application layer gateway is used only in VoIP/SIP deployments.
E. Client applications require additional configuration to use an application layer gateway.
F. An application layer gateway inspects only the first 64 bytes of a packet before forwarding it through the network.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
An ALG may offer the following functions:
. allowing client applications to use dynamic ephemeral TCP/ UDP ports to communicate with the known ports used by the server applications, even though a firewall configuration may allow only a limited number of known ports. In the absence of an ALG, either the ports would get blocked or the network administrator would need to explicitly open up a large number of ports in the firewall — rendering the network vulnerable to attacks on those ports.
. converting the network layer address information found inside an application payload between the addresses acceptable by the hosts on either side of the firewall/NAT. This aspect introduces the term 'gateway' for an ALG.
. recognizing application-specific commands and offering granular security controls over them
. synchronizing between multiple streams/sessions of data between two hosts exchanging data. For example, an FTP application may use separate connections for passing control commands and for exchanging data between the client and a remote server. During large file transfers, the control connection may remain idle. An ALG can prevent the control connection getting timed out by network devices before the lengthy file transfer completes.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application-level_gateway
Q300. Which three TLVs does LLDP use to discover network devices? (Choose three.)
A. Management address
B. Port description
C. Network policy
D. System name
E. Location information
F. Power management
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Basic Management TLV Set
This set includes the following five TLVs used in LLDP:
. Port description TLV: Provides a description of the port in an alpha-numeric format. The value equals the ifDescr object, if the LAN device supports RFC 2863.
. System name TLV: Provides the system's assigned name in an alpha-numeric format. The value equals the sysName object, if the LAN device supports RFC 3418.
. System description TLV: Provides a description of the network entity in an alpha-numeric format. This includes system's name and versions of hardware, operating system and networking software supported in the device. The value equals the sysDescr object, if the LAN device supports RFC 3418.
. System capabilities TLV: Indicates the primary function(s) of the device and whether or not these functions are enabled in the device. The capabilities are indicated by two octects. Bits 0 through 7 indicate Other, Repeater, Bridge, WLAN AP, Router, Telephone, DOCSIS cable device and Station respectively. Bits 8 through 15 are reserved.
. Management address TLV: Indicates the addresses of the local LLDP agent. Other remote managers can use this address to obtain information related to the local device.
Reference: http://www.eetimes.com/document.asp?doc_id=1272069