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2021 Feb SY0-401 exam
Q221. A malicious user is sniffing a busy encrypted wireless network waiting for an authorized client to connect to it. Only after an authorized client has connected and the hacker was able to capture the client handshake with the AP can the hacker begin a brute force attack to discover the encryption key. Which of the following attacks is taking place?
A. IV attack
B. WEP cracking
C. WPA cracking
D. Rogue AP
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are three steps to penetrating a WPA-protected network. Sniffing Parsing Attacking
Q222. A security administrator implements access controls based on the security classification of the data and need-to-know information. Which of the following BEST describes this level of access control?
A. Implicit deny
B. Role-based Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Controls
D. Least privilege
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mandatory Access Control allows access to be granted or restricted based on the rules of classification. MAC also includes the use of need to know. Need to know is a security restriction where some objects are restricted unless the subject has a need to know them.
Q223. An online store wants to protect user credentials and credit card information so that customers can store their credit card information and use their card for multiple separate transactions.
Which of the following database designs provides the BEST security for the online store?
A. Use encryption for the credential fields and hash the credit card field
B. Encrypt the username and hash the password
C. Hash the credential fields and use encryption for the credit card field
D. Hash both the credential fields and the credit card field
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hashing refers to the hash algorithms used in cryptography. It is used to store data, such as hash tables. One main characteristic of hashing is that the algorithm must have few or no collisions – in hashing two different inputs does not give the same output. Thus the credential fields should be hashed because anyone customer will have a unique credit card number/identity and since they will use their credit cards for many different transactions, the credit card field should be encrypted only, not hashed.
Q224. Which of the following malware types is MOST likely to execute its payload after Jane, an employee, has left the company?
A. Rootkit
B. Logic bomb
C. Worm
D. Botnet
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of a logic bomb. The logic bomb is configured to ‘go off’ or when Jane has left the company. A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. For example, a programmer may hide a piece of code that starts deleting files should they ever be terminated from the company. Software that is inherently malicious, such as viruses and worms, often contain logic bombs that execute a certain payload at a pre-defined time or when some other condition is met. This technique can be used by a virus or worm to gain momentum and spread before being noticed. Some viruses attack their host systems on specific dates, such as Friday the 13th or April Fool's Day. Trojans that activate on certain dates are often called "time bombs". To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. As an example, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set time are not normally regarded as logic bombs.
Q225. A company wants to ensure that its hot site is prepared and functioning. Which of the following would be the BEST process to verify the backup datacenter is prepared for such a scenario?
A. Site visit to the backup data center
B. Disaster recovery plan review
C. Disaster recovery exercise
D. Restore from backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hot site is a location that can provide operations within hours of a failure. This type of site would have servers, networks, and telecommunications equipment in place to reestablish service in a short time. Hot sites provide network connectivity, systems, and preconfigured software to meet the needs of an organization. This means that an actual exercise run would test the abilities of your hot site best.
Leading SY0-401 test engine:
Q226. At the outside break area, an employee, Ann, asked another employee to let her into the building because her badge is missing. Which of the following does this describe?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Tailgating
C. Whaling
D. Impersonation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although Ann is an employee and therefore authorized to enter the building, she does not have her badge and therefore strictly she should not be allowed to enter the building. Just as a driver can tailgate another driver’s car by following too closely, in the security sense, tailgating means to compromise physical security by following somebody through a door meant to keep out intruders. Tailgating is actually a form of social engineering, whereby someone who is not authorized to enter a particular area does so by following closely behind someone who is authorized.
Q227. Jane, a security analyst, is reviewing logs from hosts across the Internet which her company uses to gather data on new malware. Which of the following is being implemented by Jane’s company?
A. Vulnerability scanner
B. Honeynet
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Port scanner
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Internet hosts used to gather data on new malware are known as honeypots. A collection of honeypots is known as a honeynet. A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an attacker's activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to attract and "trap" people who attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems. Although the primary purpose of a honeynet is to gather information about attackers' methods and motives, the decoy network can benefit its operator in other ways, for example by diverting attackers from a real network and its resources. The Honeynet Project, a non-profit research organization dedicated to computer security and information sharing, actively promotes the deployment of honeynets. In addition to the honey pots, a honeynet usually has real applications and services so that it seems like a normal network and a worthwhile target. However, because the honeynet doesn't actually serve any authorized users, any attempt to contact the network from without is likely an illicit attempt to breach its security, and any outbound activity is likely evidence that a system has been compromised. For this reason, the suspect information is much more apparent than it would be in an actual network, where it would have to be found amidst all the legitimate network data. Applications within a honeynet are often given names such as "Finances" or "Human Services" to make them sound appealing to the attacker.
A virtual honeynet is one that, while appearing to be an entire network, resides on a single server.
Q228. After a recent security breach, the network administrator has been tasked to update and backup all router and switch configurations. The security administrator has been tasked to enforce stricter security policies. All users were forced to undergo additional user awareness training. All of these actions are due to which of the following types of risk mitigation strategies?
A. Change management
B. Implementing policies to prevent data loss
C. User rights and permissions review
D. Lessons learned
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. Described in the question is a situation where a security breach had occurred and its response which shows that lessons have been learned and used to put in place measures that will prevent any future security breaches of the same kind.
Q229. An administrator is instructed to disable IP-directed broadcasts on all routers in an organization. Which of the following attacks does this prevent?
A. Pharming
B. Smurf
C. Replay
D. Xmas
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q230. A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?
A. Malicious insider threat
B. Zero-day
C. Client-side attack
D. Malicious add-on
Answer: B
Explanation:
A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users. In this question, there are no patches are available to mitigate the vulnerability. This is therefore a zero-day vulnerability.