Exam Code: SY0-401 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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Q401. The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B
Explanation: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability, which make up the CIA triad, are the three most important concepts in security. In this instance, the answer describes the Integrity part of the CIA triad.
Q402. After working on his doctoral dissertation for two years, Joe, a user, is unable to open his dissertation file. The screen shows a warning that the dissertation file is corrupted because it is infected with a backdoor, and can only be recovered by upgrading the antivirus software from the free version to the commercial version. Which of the following types of malware is the laptop MOST likely infected with?
A. Ransomware
B. Trojan
C. Backdoor
D. Armored virus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q403. Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO).
A. AES
B. MD5
C. SHA
D. SHA-256
E. RSA
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
B: MD5 biggest weakness is that it does not have strong collision resistance, and thus it is no longer recommended for use.
C: SHA-1 (also known as SHA) is being retired from most government uses; the U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology said, "Federal agencies should stop using SHA-1 for...applications that require collision resistance as soon as practical, and must use the SHA-2 family of hash functions for these applications after 2010", though that was later relaxed. Note: The hashing algorithm must have few or no collisions. This means that hashing two different inputs does not give the same output. Cryptographic hash functions are usually designed to be collision resistant. But many hash functions that were once thought to be collision resistant were later broken. MD5 and SHA-1 in particular both have published techniques more efficient than brute force for finding collisions.
Q404. In PKI, a key pair consists of: (Select TWO).
A. A key ring
B. A public key
C. A private key
D. Key escrow
E. A passphrase
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
In a PKI the sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key. The receiver decrypts the data using his own private key. The key pair consists of these two keys.
Q405. Which of the following application attacks is used against a corporate directory service where there are unknown servers on the network?
A. Rogue access point
B. Zero day attack
C. Packet sniffing
D. LDAP injection
Answer: D
Explanation: A directory service is accessed by using LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol). LDAP injection is an attack against a directory service. Just as SQL injection attacks take statements that are input by users and exploit weaknesses within, an LDAP injection attack exploits weaknesses in LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) implementations. This can occur when the user’s input is not properly filtered, and the result can be executed commands, modified content, or results returned to unauthorized queries. The best way to prevent LDAP injection attacks is to filter the user input and to use a validation scheme to make certain that queries do not contain exploits. One of the most common uses of LDAP is associated with user information. Numerous applications exist—such as employee directories—where users find other users by typing in a portion of their name. These queries are looking at the cn value or other fields (those defined for department, home directory, and so on). Someone attempting LDAP injection could feed unexpected values to the query to see what results are returned. All too often, finding employee information equates to finding usernames and values about those users that could be portions of their passwords.
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Q406. Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following?
1 PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80
2 DENY IP ANY ANY
A. Firewall
B. NIPS
C. Load balancer
D. URL filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firewalls, routers, and even switches can use ACLs as a method of security management. An access control list has a deny ip any any implicitly at the end of any access control list. ACLs deny by default and allow by exception.
Q407. Which of the following security benefits would be gained by disabling a terminated user account rather than deleting it?
A. Retention of user keys
B. Increased logging on access attempts
C. Retention of user directories and files
D. Access to quarantined files
Answer: A
Explanation:
Account Disablement should be implemented when a user will be gone from a company whether they leave temporary or permanently. In the case of permanently leaving the company the account should be disabled. Disablement means that the account will no longer be an active account and that the user keys for that account are retained which would not be the case if the account was deleted from the system.
Q408. A system administrator is configuring UNIX accounts to authenticate against an external server. The configuration file asks for the following information DC=ServerName and DC=COM. Which of the following authentication services is being used?
A. RADIUS
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is an open, vendor-neutral, industry standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network. Directory services play an important role in developing intranet and Internet applications by allowing the sharing of information about users, systems, networks, services, and applications throughout the network. As examples, directory services may provide any organized set of records, often with a hierarchical structure, such as a corporate email directory. Similarly, a telephone directory is a list of subscribers with an address and a phone number.
An entry can look like this when represented in LDAP Data Interchange Format (LDIF) (LDAP itself is a binary protocol): dn: cn=John Doe,dc=example,dc=com cn: John Doe givenName: John sn: Doe telephoneNumber: +1 888 555 6789 telephoneNumber: +1 888 555 1232 mail: john@example.com manager: cn=Barbara Doe,dc=example,dc=com objectClass: inetOrgPerson objectClass: organizationalPerson objectClass: person objectClass: top "dn" is the distinguished name of the entry; it is neither an attribute nor a part of the entry. "cn=John Doe" is the entry's RDN (Relative Distinguished Name), and "dc=example,dc=com" is the DN of the parent entry, where "dc" denotes 'Domain Component'. The other lines show the attributes in the entry. Attribute names are typically mnemonic strings, like "cn" for common name, "dc" for domain component, "mail" for e-mail address, and "sn" for surname.
Q409. A network administrator wants to block both DNS requests and zone transfers coming from outside IP addresses. The company uses a firewall which implements an implicit allow and is currently configured with the following ACL applied to its external interface.
PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 80
PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 443
Which of the following rules would accomplish this task? (Select TWO).
A. Change the firewall default settings so that it implements an implicit deny
B. Apply the current ACL to all interfaces of the firewall
C. Remove the current ACL
D. Add the following ACL at the top of the current ACL DENY TCP ANY ANY 53
E. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY ICMP ANY ANY 53
F. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY IP ANY ANY 53
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn’t present.
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers. These are zone file exchanges between DNS servers, special manual queries, or used when a response exceeds 512 bytes. UDP port 53 is used for most typical DNS queries.
Q410. Pete, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company, has increased his travel plans for the next two years to improve business relations. Which of the following would need to be in place in case something happens to Pete?
A. Succession planning
B. Disaster recovery
C. Separation of duty
D. Removing single loss expectancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open. By identifying key roles that cannot be left unfilled and associating internal employees who can step into these roles, you can groom those employees to make sure that they are up to speed when it comes time for them to fill those positions.