Exam Code: SY0-401 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2021 Apr SY0-401 practice question
Q421. A software firm posts patches and updates to a publicly accessible FTP site. The software firm also posts digitally signed checksums of all patches and updates. The firm does this to address:
A. Integrity of downloaded software.
B. Availability of the FTP site.
C. Confidentiality of downloaded software.
D. Integrity of the server logs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Digital Signatures is used to validate the integrity of the message and the sender. In this case the software firm that posted the patches and updates digitally signed the checksums of all patches and updates.
Q422. Pete, an IT Administrator, needs to secure his server room. Which of the following mitigation methods would provide the MOST physical protection?
A. Sign in and sign out logs
B. Mantrap
C. Video surveillance
D. HVAC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mantraps are designed to contain an unauthorized, potentially hostile person/individual physically until authorities arrive. Mantraps are typically manufactured with bulletproof glass, high-strength doors, and locks and to allow the minimal amount of individuals depending on its size. Some mantraps even include scales that will weigh the person. The doors are designed in such a way as to open only when the mantrap is occupied or empty and not in-between. This means that the backdoor must first close before the front door will open. Mantraps are in most cases also combined with guards. This is the most physical protection any one measure will provide.
Q423. Ann, the system administrator, is installing an extremely critical system that can support ZERO downtime. Which of the following BEST describes the type of system Ann is installing?
A. High availability
B. Clustered
C. RAID
D. Load balanced
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q424. Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration?
A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised.
B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost.
C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking.
D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonly used to share files such as movies and music, but you must not allow users to bring in devices and create their own little networks. All networking must be done through administrators and not on a P2P basis. Data integrity can easily be compromised when using public P2P networking.
Q425. Which of the following ports should be opened on a firewall to allow for NetBIOS communication? (Select TWO).
A. 110
B. 137
C. 139
D. 143
E. 161
F. 443
Answer: B,C
Explanation: NetBIOS provides four distinct services:
Name service for name registration and resolution (port: 137/udp)
Name service for name registration and resolution (port: 137/tcp)
Datagram distribution service for connectionless communication (port: 138/udp)
Session service for connection-oriented communication (port: 139/tcp)
Refresh SY0-401 free practice questions:
Q426. An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to combine the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Unified Threat Management
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Single sign on
D. Role-based management
Answer: A
Explanation:
When you combine a firewall with other abilities (intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.), what used to be called an all-in-one appliance is now known as a unified threat management (UTM) system. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve (you only have one product to learn), a single vendor to deal with, and—typically—reduced complexity.
Q427. A security administrator must implement a secure key exchange protocol that will allow company clients to autonomously exchange symmetric encryption keys over an unencrypted channel. Which of the following MUST be implemented?
A. SHA-256
B. AES
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q428. After analyzing and correlating activity from multiple sensors, the security administrator has determined that a group of very well organized individuals from an enemy country is responsible for various attempts to breach the company network, through the use of very sophisticated and targeted attacks. Which of the following is this an example of?
A. Privilege escalation
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Malicious insider threat
D. Spear phishing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Definitions of precisely what an APT is can vary widely, but can best be summarized by their named requirements: Advanced – Criminal operators behind the threat utilize the full spectrum of computer intrusion technologies and techniques. While individual components of the attack may not be classed as particularly “advanced” (e.g. malware components generated from commonly available DIY construction kits, or the use of easily procured exploit materials), their operators can typically access and develop more advanced tools as required. They combine multiple attack methodologies and tools in order to reach and compromise their target. Persistent – Criminal operators give priority to a specific task, rather than opportunistically seeking immediate financial gain. This distinction implies that the attackers are guided by external entities. The attack is conducted through continuous monitoring and interaction in order to achieve the defined objectives. It does not mean a barrage of constant attacks and malware updates. In fact, a “low-and-slow” approach is usually more successful. Threat – means that there is a level of coordinated human involvement in the attack, rather than a mindless and automated piece of code. The criminal operators have a specific objective and are skilled, motivated, organized and well funded.
Q429. Two programmers write a new secure application for the human resources department to store personal identifiable information. The programmers make the application available to themselves using an uncommon port along with an ID and password only they know. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Root Kit
B. Spyware
C. Logic Bomb
D. Backdoor
Answer: D
Explanation:
A backdoor in a computer system (or cryptosystem or algorithm) is a method of bypassing normal authentication, securing unauthorized remote access to a computer, obtaining access to plaintext, and so on, while attempting to remain undetected. The backdoor may take the form of an installed program (e.g., Back Orifice) or may subvert the system through a rootkit. A backdoor in a login system might take the form of a hard coded user and password combination which gives access to the system. Although the number of backdoors in systems using proprietary software (software whose source code is not publicly available) is not widely credited, they are nevertheless frequently exposed. Programmers have even succeeded in secretly installing large amounts of benign code as Easter eggs in programs, although such cases may involve official forbearance, if not actual permission. Many computer worms, such as Sobig and Mydoom, install a backdoor on the affected computer (generally a PC on broadband running Microsoft Windows and Microsoft Outlook). Such backdoors appear to be installed so that spammers can send junk e-mail from the infected machines. Others, such as the Sony/BMG rootkit distributed silently on millions of music CDs through late 2005, are intended as DRM measures—and, in that case, as data gathering agents, since both surreptitious programs they installed routinely contacted central servers.
Q430. Which of the following solutions provides the most flexibility when testing new security controls prior to implementation?
A. Trusted OS
B. Host software baselining
C. OS hardening
D. Virtualization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtualization is used to host one or more operating systems in the memory of a single host computer and allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on the same hardware. Virtualization offers the flexibility of quickly and easily making backups of entire virtual systems, and quickly recovering the virtual system when errors occur. Furthermore, malicious code compromises of virtual systems rarely affect the host system, which allows for safer testing and experimentation.