Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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2021 Apr 400-101 training
Q461. Refer to the exhibit.
What password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode on a device with the given configuration?
A. ciscotest
B. ciscocert
C. cisco
D. ciscors
E. ciscoccie
Answer: A
Q462. What are three benefits of deploying NAT with ALG? (Choose three.)
A. the use of dynamic ephemeral ports through a firewall
B. the synchronization of translations between multiple streams of data
C. the use of deep packet inspection
D. the use of static ephemeral ports through a firewall
E. the conversion of session layer addresses from the application payload to outside global addresses
F. NAT traversal to support asymmetric data sessions
Answer: A,B,C
Q463. Which two are features of DMVPN? (Choose two.)
A. It does not support spoke routers behind dynamic NAT.
B. It requires IPsec encryption.
C. It only supports remote peers with statically assigned addresses.
D. It supports multicast traffic.
E. It offers configuration reduction.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
DMVPN Hub-and-spoke deployment model: In this traditional topology, remote sites (spokes) are aggregated into a headend VPN device at the corporate headquarters (hub). Traffic from any remote site to other remote sites would need to pass through the headend device. Cisco DMVPN supports dynamic routing, QoS, and IP Multicast while significantly reducing the configuration effort.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/dynamic-multipoint-vpn-dmvpn/data_sheet_c78-468520.html
Q464. Refer to the exhibit.
Which feature can R1 use to fail over from R2 to R3 if the address for R2 becomes unavailable?
A. object tracking
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. LACP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The object tracking feature allows you to create a tracked object that multiple clients can use to modify the client behavior when a tracked object changes. Several clients register their interest with the tracking process, track the same object, and take different actions when the object state changes.
Clients include the following features:
. Embedded Event Manager (EEM)
. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
. Hot Standby Redundancy Protocol (HSRP)
. Virtual port channel (vPC)
. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
The object tracking monitors the status of the tracked objects and communicates any changes made to interested clients. Each tracked object is identified by a unique number that clients can use to configure the action to take when a tracked object changes state.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_object.html
Q465. Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
B. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
C. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
D. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
E. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
F. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
Answer: A,E
Abreast of the times 400-101 book:
Q466. Which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
B. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetfFow.
C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
. Passive and Active Monitoring
Passive monitoring is the act of OER gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow. OER, when enabled, automatically enables NetFlow on the managed interfaces on the border routers. By aggregating this information on the border routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the master controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. Additionally, attributes like throughput, reachability, loading, packet loss, and latency can be deduced from the collected flows. Active monitoring is the act of generating IP SLA probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. Active probes can either be implicitly generated by OER when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or explicitly configured by the network manager in the OER configuration.
Reference: http://products.mcisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/Transport_div ersity/Transport_Diversity_PfR.html#wp199209
Q467. Which two statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only one isolated VLAN can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
B. Only one community VLAN can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
C. Multiple isolated VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
D. Multiple community VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
An isolated VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries unidirectional traffic upstream from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports. You can configure only one isolated VLAN in a PVLAN domain. An isolated VLAN can have several isolated ports. The traffic from each isolated port also remains completely separate. Only one isolated VLAN can be mapped under a given primary VLAN. A community VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries upstream traffic from the community ports to the promiscuous port and to other host ports in the same community. You can configure multiple community VLANs in a PVLAN domain. The ports within one community can communicate, but these ports cannot communicate with ports in any other community or isolated VLAN in the private VLAN.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus6000/sw/layer2/6x/b_6k_L ayer2_Config_6x/b_6k_Layer2_Config_602N12_chapter_011.html
Q468. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. It indicates that prefix aggregation cache export is enabled on the device.
B. It was obtained with the show ip cache flow command.
C. It indicates that the device is using NetFlow version 5.
D. It indicates that the flows are being sent to a destination using an RFC1918 address.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
C. The fourth line shows that Version 5 is being used.
D. The third line shows that the destination server is 10.5.206.250, which of course is a private, RFC 1918 address.
Q469. Which three statements about the differences between Cisco IOS and IOS-XE functionality are true? (Choose three.)
A. Only IOS-XE Software can host applications outside of the IOS context.
B. Only the IOS-XE Services Plane has multiple cores.
C. Only the IOS-XE Data Plane has multiple cores.
D. Only the IOS-XE Control Plane has multiple cores.
E. Only IOS-XE module management integrates with packet processing.
F. Only IOS-XE configuration and control is integrated with the kernel.
Answer: A,B,C
Q470. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?
A. It permits host 10.1.1.2 to establish a Telnet connection to R1.
B. It limits remote hosts to two SSH connection attempts.
C. SSH connections to R1 will log out after a 5-minute idle interval.
D. Hosts that reside on network 10.0.0.0/8 can SSH to R1.
E. The R1 timeout for outgoing SSH connection attempts is 30 seconds.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The timeout for outgoing SSH connection is defined by the “ip sshh time-out” command (in seconds), which is configured here as 30.